MCQ
upsc-p1-current-affairs-persons-appointments MCQ - Practice Questions with Answers
Solve 9 upsc-p1-current-affairs-persons-appointments questions for RAS/RPSC preparation.
Practice questions
Q1With reference to the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners under the 2023 law, consider the following statements: 1. A search committee headed by the Union Minister of Law and Justice prepares a panel of names. 2. The selection committee includes the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister, and the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha or the leader of the largest opposition party. 3. The Chief Justice of India remains a statutory member of the selection committee under the 2023 law. Which of the statements given above are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statements 1 and 2 describe the statutory process under the 2023 Act. The search committee is headed by the Union Minister of Law and Justice. Statement 3 is incorrect. The CJI belonged to the interim committee prescribed in Anoop Baranwal (2023) only until Parliament enacted a law; the later Act created a different selection committee.
Q2Arrange the following constitutional offices or bodies according to the ascending numerical order of their principal constitutional provisions: A. Attorney General for India B. Supreme Court judges C. Comptroller and Auditor General of India D. Governor of a State Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The Attorney General is under Article 76, Supreme Court judges under Article 124, the CAG under Articles 148-151, and Governors under Articles 153-156. Their ascending order is therefore A-B-C-D, shown in option A.
Q3Consider the following statements regarding the law officers of the Union: 1. Article 76 creates the office of the Attorney General for India, who must be qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. 2. The office of the Solicitor General is expressly created by Article 76. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statement 1 is correct: Article 76 creates the constitutional office of Attorney General, and the appointee must be qualified to become a Supreme Court judge. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Solicitor General is an important law officer but not a constitutional office created by Article 76.
Q4Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below. List I (Office) A. Attorney General for India B. Comptroller and Auditor General of India C. Finance Commission D. Election Commission of India List II (Constitutional provision) 1. Article 280 2. Article 324 3. Article 76 4. Articles 148-151
The Attorney General is under Article 76; the CAG is covered by Articles 148-151; the Finance Commission is created by Article 280; and the Election Commission derives from Article 324. Therefore, A-3, B-4, C-1 and D-2 is the correct match.
Q5With reference to safeguards against removal from office, consider the following statements: 1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India can be removed in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. 2. An Election Commissioner other than the Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. 3. The President's pleasure under Article 156 permits the arbitrary removal of a Governor. Which of the statements given above are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 148 gives the CAG removal protection equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge, while Article 324(5) requires the CEC's recommendation to remove another Election Commissioner. Statement 3 is incorrect because B.P. Singhal (2010) held that the pleasure under Article 156 cannot be exercised arbitrarily.
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6Consider the following statements regarding the Union Public Service Commission: 1. Its advice on recruitment and disciplinary matters is generally not binding on the government. 2. A UPSC member accused of misbehaviour may be removed by the President at ordinary executive pleasure without a Supreme Court inquiry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
7Arrange the following developments in higher judicial appointments in chronological order, from the earliest to the latest: A. The First Judges case gave primacy to the executive. B. The Second Judges case gave primacy to the judiciary and developed the collegium idea. C. The Third Judges case expanded and clarified collegium consultation. D. The NJAC judgment struck down the 99th Constitutional Amendment and the NJAC Act. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
8Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below. List I (Case) A. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981) B. Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1997) C. B.P. Singhal v. Union of India (2010) D. Centre for PIL v. Union of India (2011) List II (Principal relevance) 1. Institutional integrity in the appointment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner 2. Executive primacy in judicial appointments 3. Insulation of investigative and vigilance institutions from arbitrary executive control 4. Constitutional limits on arbitrary removal of Governors
9Consider the following statements about constitutional and statutory bodies: 1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a constitutional authority. 2. The Election Commission of India is a constitutional body. 3. The Central Vigilance Commission is a statutory body. 4. The Reserve Bank of India is a constitutional body. Which of the statements given above are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.