MCQ
upsc-p1-environment-intl-conventions-orgs MCQ - Practice Questions with Answers
Solve 10 upsc-p1-environment-intl-conventions-orgs questions for RAS/RPSC preparation.
Practice questions
Q1Arrange the following developments in chronological order, from earliest to latest: A. Convention on Biological Diversity opened for signature at the Rio Earth Summit B. CITES adopted C. Convention on Migratory Species concluded D. Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment Select the correct answer using the code given below:
The sequence is Stockholm Conference (1972), adoption of CITES (1973), conclusion of CMS (1979), and the opening of CBD for signature at Rio (1992). Therefore option C gives the correct order D-B-C-A.
Q2With reference to CITES, consider the following statements: 1. A specimen may include a live animal or plant, its parts and its derivatives. 2. Appendix III may include a species protected in one country that seeks other Parties' assistance in controlling trade. 3. The Scientific Authority issues trade permits, while the Management Authority determines whether trade harms the species. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. CITES covers listed animal and plant specimens, including parts and derivatives, and Appendix III enables a Party to seek trade-control assistance. Statement 3 swaps institutional functions: the Management Authority issues permits, while the Scientific Authority advises whether trade would be detrimental to survival.
Q3Arrange the following in chronological order, from earliest to latest: A. Nagoya Protocol adopted B. Environment Protection Act enacted in India C. Biological Diversity Act enacted in India D. Convention on Biological Diversity entered into force Select the correct answer using the code given below:
The Environment Protection Act was enacted in 1986. CBD entered into force on 29 December 1993. The Biological Diversity Act was enacted in 2002, and the Nagoya Protocol was adopted in 2010. Thus option A gives the correct sequence B-D-C-A.
Q4With reference to wetland governance, consider the following statements: 1. Ramsar designation automatically gives a wetland the legal status of a national park in India. 2. The Ramsar definition may cover an artificial or temporary wetland and marine water up to six metres deep at low tide. Which one of the following is correct?
Statement 2 is correct. Ramsar Article 1 uses a broad definition that includes artificial and temporary wetlands and shallow marine water up to six metres at low tide. Ramsar designation is international recognition and a management framework; national-park status requires a separate domestic legal process.
Q5With reference to the Ramsar Convention, consider the following statements: 1. A wetland must satisfy all nine Ramsar criteria before it can be designated. 2. Wise use permits compatible livelihoods and management while maintaining ecological character. 3. The Montreux Record is a punishment list for States that violate the Convention. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Only Statement 2 is correct. A Ramsar site need not meet all nine criteria. Wise use maintains ecological character while allowing compatible use. The Montreux Record identifies sites whose ecological character has changed, is changing or may change and serves as a warning and assistance mechanism, not a punishment list.
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6Match List I with List II: List I (Instrument or body) A. CITES appendices B. CMS appendices C. Ramsar List D. IUCN Red List List II (Primary classification) 1. Wetlands of international importance 2. Scientific assessment of extinction risk 3. Migratory-species conservation categories 4. Trade-control categories for listed specimens Select the correct answer using the code given below:
7Match List I with List II: List I (Indian provision or law) A. Article 253 B. Biological Diversity Act, 2002 C. Wild Life Protection Amendment Act, 2022 D. Wetlands Conservation and Management Rules, 2017 List II (Principal link) 1. State Wetland Authorities and notification-based management 2. Parliament's power to implement treaties and international conference decisions 3. Three-tier biodiversity governance 4. Schedule IV and scheduled specimens for CITES implementation Select the correct answer using the code given below:
8Consider the following statements about UNEP and UNEA: 1. UNEP is a convention whose Parties regulate international trade in listed wildlife specimens. 2. UNEA has universal membership of all 193 United Nations Member States. 3. UNEP directly declares Ramsar sites and enforces pollution offences in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
9With reference to the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS), consider the following statements: 1. A species may be listed in both CMS appendices if the facts justify such listing. 2. For the Convention, every animal that moves from one place to another is a migratory species. Which one of the following is correct?
10With reference to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), consider the following statements: 1. Its scope includes genetic, species and ecosystem diversity. 2. The Cartagena Protocol deals with access to genetic resources and benefit-sharing. 3. The Nagoya Protocol deals with access to genetic resources and fair benefit-sharing. Select the correct answer using the code given below: