MCQ
upsc-p1-polity-governance-public-policy MCQ - Practice Questions with Answers
Solve 10 upsc-p1-polity-governance-public-policy questions for RAS/RPSC preparation.
Practice questions
Q1With reference to digital governance safeguards, consider the following statements: 1. Linking databases can magnify an identity error across departments. 2. Offline alternatives and correction channels can reduce exclusion risks. 3. Aadhaar authentication under Section 7 is linked to every service, irrespective of its source of funding. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: interoperability can spread bad data, while offline access and effective correction channels help protect citizens from exclusion. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 7 concerns subsidies, benefits and services funded from the Consolidated Fund of India, subject to judicial limits; it is not an unrestricted link to every service.
Q2Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List I (Institution or mechanism) (a) Public Accounts Committee (b) Central Vigilance Commission (c) Social audits (d) Information Commission List II (Principal role) 1. Community verification of public records, works, beneficiaries and payments 2. Examination of reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General 3. Decision on second appeals and complaints under the RTI framework 4. Supervision of vigilance administration and anti-corruption oversight
The Public Accounts Committee examines CAG reports; the Central Vigilance Commission supervises vigilance administration and performs anti-corruption oversight; social audits check public records, works, beneficiaries and payments through community verification; and Information Commissions decide second appeals and complaints under RTI. Thus option A gives all four correct matches.
Q3Consider the following statements about a Citizen Charter: 1. It can state service eligibility, documents, time limits, fees, the responsible officer and the grievance channel. 2. It is invariably enforceable as law even when it has no statutory or rules-based backing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct because a Citizen Charter sets out the practical terms of a public service and its grievance route. Statement 2 is incorrect: a charter is ordinarily a management promise, and enforceability depends on statutory provisions, rules or an incorporated grievance mechanism.
Q4Consider the following statements concerning policy evaluation: 1. An output counts what the government produced, while an outcome measures change for citizens. 2. An impact assessment asks whether the policy caused the observed change after accounting for other factors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. Output, outcome and impact answer progressively different questions: what was produced, what changed for citizens, and whether the policy itself caused that change after other influences are considered. Counting outputs alone can therefore miss genuine welfare effects.
Q5Consider the following statements regarding local governance: 1. Article 243G enables State laws to endow Panchayats with powers for economic development and social justice. 2. Article 243W enables State laws to assign functions to Municipalities. 3. The Eleventh Schedule contains 29 subjects, whereas the Twelfth Schedule contains 18 subjects. Which of the statements given above are correct?
All three statements are correct. Article 243G concerns the endowment of Panchayats, Article 243W concerns the assignment of municipal functions, and the Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules list 29 and 18 subjects respectively. These provisions enable State legislation; they do not by themselves ensure that functions, funds and functionaries are aligned.
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6With reference to the Right to Information framework, consider the following statements: 1. Proactive disclosure under Section 4 is different from an individual application. 2. Section 19 provides for first and second appeals. 3. Section 20 permits a penalty for every reply that is adverse to the applicant. Which of the statements given above are correct?
7Arrange the following stages of a public policy process in their logical order: (a) Policy formulation and design (b) Evaluation of citizen outcomes (c) Agenda setting (d) Implementation through the delivery chain Select the correct answer using the code given below:
8Arrange the following steps of a portal-based public grievance process in their logical order: (a) The department provides its reply (b) The portal routes the grievance to the concerned authority (c) The citizen submits the grievance (d) The nodal officer monitors its handling Select the correct answer using the code given below:
9Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List I (RTI provision) (a) Section 3 (b) Section 4 (c) Section 8 (d) Section 20 List II (Function) 1. Proactive disclosure by public authorities 2. Penalty concerning specified conduct of the public information officer 3. Right to information for citizens 4. Exemptions with public-interest balancing
10Consider the following statements about accountability institutions in India: 1. The Comptroller and Auditor General itself recovers money and punishes an officer on the basis of its findings. 2. The Public Accounts Committee examines reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General. 3. A vigilance inquiry is not the same as a criminal trial. Which of the statements given above are correct?