MCQ
upsc-p1-polity-amendment-basic-structure MCQ - Practice Questions with Answers
Solve 9 upsc-p1-polity-amendment-basic-structure questions for RAS/RPSC preparation.
Practice questions
Q1Consider the following statements about Parliament's amending power after Kesavananda Bharati: 1. Parliament may amend Fundamental Rights, provided the amendment does not damage the basic structure. 2. A constitutional amendment may still be invalid even when all procedural requirements have been satisfied, if it destroys a basic feature. Which one of the following is correct?
Both statements are correct. Kesavananda Bharati rejected an absolute bar on amending Fundamental Rights but imposed the basic-structure limitation. Therefore, procedural compliance is necessary but not sufficient: an amendment that damages or destroys an essential constitutional feature may still be struck down.
Q2With reference to the procedure under Article 368, consider the following statements: 1. A Constitution Amendment Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament. 2. It must be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership and by at least two-thirds of the members present and voting. 3. A disagreement between the Houses may be resolved through a joint sitting under Article 108. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 368 permits introduction in either House and requires both components of the special majority in each House separately. Article 108 does not provide a joint sitting for a Constitution Amendment Bill, so Statement 3 is incorrect.
Q3Arrange the following Supreme Court decisions in chronological order, from the earliest to the latest: 1. Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) 2. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (1951) 3. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) 4. I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967) Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
The chronology is Shankari Prasad (1951), Golaknath (1967), Kesavananda Bharati (1973), and Minerva Mills (1980). Hence the sequence in option C, 2-4-3-1, is correct.
Q4With reference to the basic structure doctrine, consider the following statements: 1. Parliament may convert its limited amending power into an unlimited power through Article 368. 2. Harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles has been treated as a basic feature. 3. The Supreme Court has laid down an exhaustive and closed list of all basic features. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only Statement 2 is correct. Minerva Mills treated harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, as well as limited amending power, as basic features. Parliament cannot enlarge a limited power into an unlimited one, and the Court identifies basic features case by case rather than through a closed list.
Q5Match List I with List II: List I (Constitutional Amendment) 1. 52nd Amendment 2. 61st Amendment 3. 86th Amendment 4. 101st Amendment List II (Constitutional effect) (a) Inserted Article 21A (b) Introduced the GST framework through Articles 246A, 269A and 279A (c) Inserted the Tenth Schedule (d) Reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 Which one of the following codes is correct?
The 52nd Amendment inserted the Tenth Schedule; the 61st reduced the voting age from 21 to 18; the 86th inserted Article 21A; and the 101st introduced the GST framework through Articles 246A, 269A and 279A. Therefore option B is correct.
You've seen 5 of 9 sample questions
Unlimited practice on upsc-p1-polity-amendment-basic-structure comes with the RAS Test Series + Practice pack or Gate Pass.
More questions
6With reference to Articles 31A, 31B and 31C, consider the following statements: 1. Article 31A protects certain categories of laws, including laws relating to estates and agrarian reform, from challenges based on Articles 14 and 19. 2. Article 31B does not provide an absolute shield from basic-structure review to laws inserted in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973. 3. In its surviving form after Minerva Mills, Article 31C gives every Directive Principle automatic priority over Articles 14 and 19. Which of the statements given above are correct?
7Consider the following statements regarding changes in the territory and boundaries of States: 1. Under Article 3, Parliament may form a new State or alter the area, boundary or name of a State after the affected State legislature has been asked for its views. 2. Under Article 4, consequential changes to the First and Fourth Schedules made by a law under Articles 2 and 3 are not deemed amendments under Article 368. Which one of the following is correct?
8Consider the following statements about State ratification under the proviso to Article 368(2): 1. An amendment changing Article 279A requires ratification by at least one-half of the State legislatures. 2. Ratification by Union Territories is constitutionally required along with State ratification. 3. An amendment changing Article 368 itself requires ratification by at least one-half of the State legislatures. Which of the statements given above are correct?
9Arrange the following constitutional amendments in chronological order, from the earliest to the latest: 1. 101st Amendment (2016) 2. 44th Amendment (1978) 3. 24th Amendment (1971) 4. 42nd Amendment (1976) Which one of the following is the correct sequence?