MCQ
upsc-p1-current-affairs-national-polity MCQ - Practice Questions with Answers
Solve 9 upsc-p1-current-affairs-national-polity questions for RAS/RPSC preparation.
Practice questions
Q1Arrange the following judicial developments in chronological order from earliest to latest: (a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (c) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (d) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India holding privacy to be a Fundamental Right Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Kesavananda Bharati was decided in 1973, Maneka Gandhi in 1978, S.R. Bommai in 1994, and the privacy judgment in K.S. Puttaswamy in 2017. Therefore the sequence a-b-c-d, shown in option D, is correct.
Q2With reference to local governance in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Eleventh Schedule lists 29 matters for Panchayats. 2. The Twelfth Schedule lists 18 matters for Municipalities. 3. Article 243ZD provides for District Planning Committees. 4. Article 243ZE provides for Metropolitan Planning Committees. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
All four statements are correct. The Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules contain 29 Panchayat matters and 18 municipal matters respectively. Articles 243ZD and 243ZE provide for District and Metropolitan Planning Committees respectively.
Q3Match List I with List II: List I (Constitutional provision) 1. Article 123 2. Article 213 3. Article 243I 4. Article 243Y List II (Subject) (a) State Finance Commission in relation to Municipalities (b) President's ordinance-making power (c) Governor's ordinance-making power (d) State Finance Commission in relation to Panchayats Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Article 123 concerns the President's ordinance power and Article 213 the Governor's ordinance power. Article 243I provides for the State Finance Commission in the Panchayat framework, while Article 243Y applies it to Municipalities. Hence option B is correct.
Q4Arrange the following statutes in chronological order of their enactment, from earliest to latest: (a) Digital Personal Data Protection Act (b) Right to Information Act (c) Aadhaar Act (d) Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act Select the correct answer using the code given below:
The Right to Information Act was enacted in 2005, the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act in 2013, the Aadhaar Act in 2016, and the Digital Personal Data Protection Act in 2023. Thus the correct sequence is b-d-c-a, given in option C.
Q5Consider the following statements about the appointment and removal framework of the Election Commission of India: 1. The 2023 law provides a selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, or the leader of the single largest opposition party when no Leader of Opposition is recognised. 2. Other Election Commissioners may be removed on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner, whereas the Chief Election Commissioner has removal protection similar to a Supreme Court judge. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both statements are correct. The 2023 Act created the stated statutory selection committee. The removal safeguards are asymmetric: the Chief Election Commissioner has protection similar to a Supreme Court judge, while another Election Commissioner may be removed on the Chief Election Commissioner's recommendation.
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6With reference to the constitutional distribution of powers, consider the following statements: 1. Article 248 and Entry 97 of the Union List deal with residuary powers. 2. Article 254 addresses inconsistency between Union and State laws on Concurrent List subjects. 3. Article 262 permits Parliament to provide for adjudication of inter-State river-water disputes and to exclude court jurisdiction. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
7With reference to Parliament's law-making procedures, consider the following statements: 1. Article 108 permits a joint sitting in case of a deadlock on an ordinary Bill. 2. A joint sitting may be used for both a Money Bill and a Constitution Amendment Bill. 3. Although the Speaker's certification matters, Article 110 remains the constitutional source of the definition of a Money Bill. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
8Match List I with List II: List I (Institution) 1. Comptroller and Auditor General of India 2. Lokpal 3. National Human Rights Commission 4. Public Accounts Committee List II (Source or character) (a) Parliamentary committee that scrutinises and recommends (b) Article 148 (c) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (d) Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
9Consider the following statements about accountability institutions and service delivery: 1. The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. 2. A government portal or dashboard does not by itself create an enforceable legal right; the right must arise from the Constitution, a statute, rules, or enforceable scheme terms. Select the correct answer using the code given below: