MCQ
Online Gaming Regulation MCQ - Practice Questions with Answers
Solve 76 Online Gaming Regulation questions for RAS/RPSC preparation.
Practice questions
Q1With reference to user protection and grievance redressal under the Online Gaming Rules, 2026, consider the following statements: 1. The Rules prescribe mandatory user safety features for online game service providers. 2. User safety features may be technical, procedural, operational, behavioural or system-related safeguards. 3. The framework recognises a two-tier grievance redressal mechanism and statutory right of appeal. 4. The Rules remove transparency obligations for online game service providers once a game is classified as permissible. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Rules prescribe user safety features, define their possible forms, and provide grievance redressal plus appeal. Statement 4 is incorrect because the Rules prescribe transparency obligations; they do not remove them after classification.
Q2With reference to determination of an online game under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, consider the following statements: 1. Payment of fees or stakes is one of the objective factors for determination. 2. Determination can be triggered only by an application from an e-sport service provider. 3. A determination order automatically binds similar games offered by other providers. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 is correct because Rule 9 factors include payment of fees or stakes. Statement 2 is incorrect because determination may also be triggered by suo motu action or a Central Government notification. Statement 3 is incorrect because a determination is specific to the particular game and provider.
Q3With reference to online gaming regulation in India, consider the following statements: 1. Offering an online money gaming service in contravention of section 5 may attract imprisonment up to three years or fine up to one crore rupees or both. 2. Advertising in contravention of section 6 may attract imprisonment up to two years or fine up to fifty lakh rupees or both. 3. A first contravention of section 7 can attract only a civil warning and no imprisonment. 4. For repeat conviction under section 5 or 7, imprisonment may extend to five years and fine may extend to two crore rupees. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The Act specifies these imprisonment and fine limits for sections 5, 6 and repeat section 5/7 offences. Statement 3 is false because a section 7 contravention may attract imprisonment up to three years or fine up to one crore rupees or both.
Q4With reference to registration and safeguards under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, consider the following statements: 1. Registration is mandatory for every online game, irrespective of whether it seeks recognition as an e-sport or falls in a notified social-game category. 2. Successful registration grants a digital certificate valid for up to 10 years. 3. An online money game is entirely ineligible for recognition or registration as an e-sport under the National Sports Governance Act, 2025. 4. User-safety features under the Rules include age verification, time limits and parental controls. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect because registration is not blanket; it is mandatory only for games intended to be recognised as e-sports or for specified social games notified by the Centre. Statement 2 is correct because the certificate can be valid for up to 10 years. Statement 3 is correct because the Rules exclude online money games from e-sport recognition or registration. Statement 4 is correct because age verification, time limits and parental controls are listed user-safety features.
Q5Which Union ministry notified the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, that come into force on May 1, 2026?
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) notified the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026 on April 22, 2026, with effect from May 1, 2026. The rules establish the Online Gaming Authority of India, which will be chaired by the Additional Secretary of MeitY.
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6With reference to determination of online games under the 2026 Rules, consider the following statements: 1. Determination may be triggered by suo motu action by the Authority. 2. Determination may be triggered by an application by a service provider offering the game as an e-sport. 3. Determination is required to be completed in 10 days in every case, without exception. Which of the statements given above are correct?
7With reference to online money games under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, consider the following statements: 1. An online money game may be based on skill, chance, or both. 2. Online money games are permitted if they are predominantly skill-based. 3. E-sports are excluded from the definition of online money game. Which of the statements given above are correct?
8With reference to online gaming regulation in India, consider the following statements: 1. No person shall offer, aid, abet, induce or otherwise engage in the offering of online money game and online money gaming service. 2. Advertisements directly or indirectly promoting online money games are prohibited in any media including electronic means of communication. 3. Banks and financial institutions may facilitate payments for online money gaming services if they do not advertise them. 4. Offences under sections 5 and 7 are cognizable and non-bailable. Which of the statements given above are correct?
9With reference to user safety features under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, consider the following statements: 1. The Rules introduce user safety features as safeguards appropriate to the risk profile of the game. 2. Age verification and parental controls are examples of such user safety features. 3. Service providers are prohibited from disclosing their user safety features during applications for determination or registration. Which of the statements given above are correct?
10With reference to the composition of the Online Gaming Authority of India under the 2026 Rules, consider the following statements: 1. It includes Joint Secretary-level representatives from the Ministry of Home Affairs and the Department of Financial Services. 2. It includes Joint Secretary-level representatives from Youth Affairs and Sports and Law and Justice. 3. It is chaired by a representative of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Which of the statements given above are correct?
11With reference to the functions of the Online Gaming Authority of India under the Rules, 2026, consider the following statements: 1. The Authority maintains and publishes the list of online money games. 2. The Authority may issue directions, orders and codes of practice. 3. The Authority entertains appeals against decisions of service providers on grievances. 4. The Authority has no coordination role with financial institutions or law-enforcement agencies. Which of the statements given above are correct?
12With reference to online gaming regulation in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Online Gaming Authority of India is constituted as an attached office of MeitY. 2. Its head office is at the NCT of Delhi. 3. It is chaired ex officio by the Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs. 4. It is designed to function, as far as practicable, as a digital office. Which of the statements given above are correct?
13With reference to the Online Gaming Authority of India under the 2026 Rules, consider the following statements: 1. It is constituted as an attached office of the Ministry of Finance. 2. Its head office is at the National Capital Territory of Delhi. 3. It is chaired ex officio by the Additional Secretary of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. 4. Its functions include maintaining the list of online money games and entertaining appeals against service-provider grievance decisions. Which of the statements given above are correct?
14With reference to the scope of the 2025 Act and the definition of e-sport, consider the following statements: 1. The Act applies only to online money gaming services operated from within Indian territory. 2. An e-sport may involve the placing of bets by participants, provided non-participants do not place stakes. 3. An e-sport has its outcome determined solely by factors such as physical dexterity, mental agility, strategic thinking or similar skills. 4. Recognition under the National Sports Governance Act, 2025 is irrelevant to the statutory definition of e-sport. Which of the statements given above are correct?
15With reference to e-sports under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, consider the following statements: 1. E-sport is an online game played as part of multi-sports events. 2. It involves organised competitive events between individuals or teams in multiplayer formats governed by predefined rules. 3. Its outcome is determined solely by lottery draw and random chance. Which of the statements given above are correct?