Aspirant Academy

MCQ

Centre-State relations and emergency provisions MCQ - Practice Questions with Answers

Solve 13 Centre-State relations and emergency provisions questions for RAS/RPSC preparation.

Practice questions

Q1Read the assertion and reason. Assertion (A): In a dispute about a State ministry's majority, the normal test should be on the floor of the Assembly. Reason (R): S.R. Bommai v. Union of India made Article 356 action judicially reviewable and allowed examination of the material behind the proclamation. Choose the correct answer.

A Both A and R are true, and R explains A
B Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
C A is true, but R is false
D A is false, but R is true
Explanation

President's Rule is connected with the S.R. Bommai decision of 1994. That case made Article 356 action judicially reviewable, allowed courts to examine the material behind the proclamation, and stressed that a majority should normally be tested on the Assembly floor. Therefore, the assertion about the floor test is true. The reason is also true and explains why the Assembly floor, rather than a private assessment by the governor or the Union, is treated as the proper place to test support.

Q2Which one is not correct about the Emergency Provisions?

A Under Article 352, Emergency can be announced only on the written advice of the Cabinet.
B President's Rule can be imposed in any state for a maximum of 3 years.
C President's Rule has been imposed in the State of Rajasthan 4 times.
D The term 'Armed rebellion' was inserted into the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment.
Explanation

The question asks for the statement that is not correct. The written advice of the Cabinet is required for a national emergency under Article 352. President's Rule can, under the constitutional limits and extensions, continue up to a maximum of three years in a state. Rajasthan has seen President's Rule four times, matching the printed statement. The incorrect statement is that 'armed rebellion' was inserted by the 42nd Amendment; the substitution of 'internal disturbance' by 'armed rebellion' came through the 44th Amendment.

Q3In 1983, which of the following commissions or committees was appointed by the Central Government to examine and review Centre-State relations in all spheres and recommend appropriate changes?

A Hanumanthaiya Commission
B Sarkaria Commission
C Rajamannar Committee
D Ashok Mehta Commission
Explanation

The Sarkaria Commission was appointed by the Central Government in 1983 to examine Centre-State relations across the constitutional, administrative and political fields and suggest suitable changes. The Hanumanthaiya Commission is not associated with this specific 1983 review. The Rajamannar Committee was set up earlier by the Tamil Nadu government, not by the Centre. The Ashok Mehta Commission dealt mainly with Panchayati Raj reforms, so it does not match the stated purpose.

Q4When an emergency is declared due to the failure of the constitutional machinery in the states, it is invoked under:

A Article 360
B Article 350
C Article 352
D Article 356
Explanation

Failure of the constitutional machinery in a state is dealt with under Article 356, commonly called President's Rule. It allows the Union to assume functions of the state government when governance cannot be carried on according to the Constitution. Article 360 concerns financial emergency, not state machinery failure. Article 352 is for national emergency on grounds such as war, external aggression or armed rebellion. Article 350 relates to language used in representations for redress of grievances, so it is unrelated to emergency provisions.

Q5Match the constitutional provision with the institution or rule described: List I: 1. Article 280 2. Article 279A 3. Article 263 4. Article 254 List II: a. Finance Commission b. GST Council c. Inter-State Council d. Conflict on Concurrent List subjects Choose the correct match.

A 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
B 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
C 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
D 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a
Explanation

Legislative, administrative and fiscal links are distinct. Article 280 provides for the Finance Commission, which recommends tax sharing and grants between the Union and States. Article 279A was inserted by the 101st Amendment, 2016 and created the GST Council as a fiscal-federal forum. Article 263 allows an Inter-State Council for inquiry, discussion and recommendations on common-interest matters. Article 254 deals with inconsistency on Concurrent List subjects, where a valid Union law normally prevails unless a protected State law has Presidential assent and Parliament has not later overridden it.

You've seen 5 of 13 sample questions

Unlimited practice on Centre-State relations and emergency provisions comes with the RAS Test Series + Practice pack or Gate Pass.

More questions

6Read the assertion and reason: Assertion (A): In political majority disputes, the Assembly floor test is normally preferred. Reason (R): The governor's or the Union's private assessment is the proper way to prove a ministry's majority. Choose the correct answer.

ABoth A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
BBoth A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A
CA is true, but R is false
DA is false, but R is true

7Which one of the following statements about Financial Emergency is incorrect?

AIt is provided under Article 360.
BIt has been proclaimed once in India.
CIt may be proclaimed when India's financial stability or credit is threatened.
DDuring it, the Union may give financial directions to States.

8Consider the following statements about National Emergency: Statement 1: The 44th Amendment replaced internal disturbance with armed rebellion as a ground under Article 352. Statement 2: A National Emergency can be proclaimed for an ordinary State law-and-order problem. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

AStatement 2 only
BBoth Statement 1 and Statement 2
CNeither Statement 1 nor Statement 2
DStatement 1 only

9The Punchhi Commission (2010) is associated with which of the following?

ACentre-state relations
BAbolition of the death penalty
CReforms in education
DTax reforms

10What does Article 1's description of India as a Union of States mainly imply?

AIndia was formed by a treaty among independent States
BA State has elected institutions, but no right to secede from India
CStates are only administrative offices of the Union government
DA State Legislature can veto any proposal under Article 3

11Match List I with List II. List I: 1. Article 280 2. Article 279A 3. Article 360 4. Article 263 List II: a. Financial Emergency b. Finance Commission c. GST Council d. Inter-State Council Choose the correct code.

A1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
B1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
C1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
D1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a

12Under Article 352, which set correctly states the grounds for proclaiming a National Emergency after the 44th Amendment?

AWar, external aggression and internal disturbance
BWar, external aggression and armed rebellion
CWar, financial instability and constitutional breakdown in a State
DExternal aggression, public order problem and financial credit crisis

13Read the statements about laws on Concurrent List subjects. Statement 1: A valid Union law normally prevails over an inconsistent State law. Statement 2: A State law with Presidential assent can be protected within that State, but Parliament may later override it by another law. Which of the following is correct?

AOnly Statement 1 is correct
BOnly Statement 2 is correct
CNeither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
DBoth Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct

More topics in Indian Constitution & Governance

Explore other subjects