MCQ
Centre-State relations, emergency provisions and key amendments MCQ - Practice Questions with Answers
Solve 9 Centre-State relations, emergency provisions and key amendments questions for RAS/RPSC preparation.
Practice questions
Q1Article 1 describes India, that is Bharat, as a Union of States. Which conclusion follows from this description as explained?
The cue is the phrase Union of States in Article 1. The Constitution creates the Union and the States together. States have elected governments and constitutional fields, so they are not mere departments of the Centre. At the same time, they do not possess an independent right to secede, and the Supreme Court rejected equal State sovereignty in State of West Bengal v. Union of India, 1963. Therefore, the sound conclusion is that States have real government, while territorial sovereignty rests in the constitutional Union.
Q2Consider a State law on a Concurrent List subject that conflicts with an earlier valid Union law. The State law has received the President's assent. Which consequence follows from Article 254(2)?
Article 254 deals with repugnancy on a Concurrent List matter. There is the two-step rule: ordinarily, a valid Union law prevails over an inconsistent State law; however, if the State law receives the President's assent, it may remain valid within that State. This protection is not absolute. Parliament can later enact another law overriding the State law. Therefore, Presidential assent gives State-specific protection, not nationwide operation or permanent immunity from future parliamentary legislation.
Q3Which statement best captures the constitutional position of Indian States under Article 1 and Article 3?
Article 1 describes India as a Union of States. Indian federalism gives States elected governments, legislatures and constitutional fields, but it is not a loose confederation of sovereign States. Article 3 also shows this design: Parliament can form new States or alter boundaries after seeking the affected State Legislature's views, yet the State has no veto. The accurate formulation is that States are real constitutional governments within a Union whose territorial sovereignty is not divisible by secession.
Q4Statement 1: The Forty-fourth Amendment replaced internal disturbance with armed rebellion as a ground under Article 352. Statement 2: A National Emergency proclamation under Article 352 requires written advice of the Union Cabinet. Statement 3: After the post-1978 safeguards, Article 358 affects Article 19 only when the emergency is based on war or external aggression. Which of the statements given above are correct?
All three statements come from the emergency safeguards described. The 1975 National Emergency exposed the danger of broad emergency language. The Forty-fourth Amendment, 1978 therefore replaced internal disturbance with armed rebellion and required written advice of the Union Cabinet before the President issues a proclamation under Article 352. The post-1978 rights safeguard: Article 358 now affects Article 19 only when the emergency is based on war or external aggression. Leaving out any one of these safeguards gives an incomplete answer.
Q5List I: 1. Article 352 2. Article 356 3. Article 360 4. Article 279A List II: a. GST Council b. President's Rule in a State c. Financial Emergency d. National Emergency Choose the correct match.
There is a clean article-based classification. Article 352 is National Emergency, dealing with national security grounds such as war, external aggression and armed rebellion. Article 356 is President's Rule, used when a State government cannot be carried on according to the Constitution. Article 360 is Financial Emergency, meant for a threat to India's financial stability or credit and never proclaimed in India. Article 279A was inserted by the 101st Amendment and created the GST Council as an institution of fiscal federalism.
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6Assertion (A): The 42nd Amendment, 1976 increased the Union's role in several policy fields by shifting selected subjects to the Concurrent List. Reason (R): Education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice were among the subjects moved to the Concurrent List. Choose the correct answer.
7Statement 1: A National Emergency under Article 352 may be proclaimed on the grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. Statement 2: After the 44th Amendment, Article 358 affects Article 19 only when the emergency is based on war or external aggression. Statement 3: Article 359 cannot be used to suspend enforcement of Articles 20 and 21. Which of the above statements are correct?
8Assertion (A): In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, Article 356 proclamations were made judicially reviewable and majority should normally be tested on the Assembly floor. Reason (R): The Governor's private assessment of majority is final and cannot be examined by courts. Choose the correct answer.
9Match the constitutional route with the cue given. List I: 1. Article 249 2. Article 250 3. Article 252 4. Article 253 List II: a. National Emergency b. Rajya Sabha resolution in national interest c. Request by two or more State Legislatures d. International treaty, agreement or convention