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Indian Constitution, Political System & Governance MCQ - Practice Questions with Answers

Solve 85 Indian Constitution, Political System & Governance questions for RAS/RPSC preparation.

Practice questions

Q1Which of the following correctly states the rule on oral evidence under Sections 54 and 55 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

A Oral evidence may prove every fact including the exact contents of documents
B All facts except the contents of documents may be proved by oral evidence, and oral evidence must be direct
C Oral evidence is admissible only if it is supported by an electronic record certificate
D A witness may narrate what another person saw if the witness believes that person is reliable
Explanation

The BSA keeps a clear boundary between oral and documentary proof. Section 54 allows oral evidence for all facts except the contents of documents, while Section 55 insists that oral evidence be direct, such as evidence from the person who saw, heard or otherwise perceived the fact.

Q2Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, when a police officer decides that arrest is not required in a cognizable offence covered by section 35, what is the normal procedural step towards the suspect?

A Refer the information compulsorily to the District Magistrate before investigation
B Immediately forward the person to judicial custody for fourteen days
C Issue a notice directing the person to appear before the officer or at the specified place
D Treat the person as discharged from the case without any further attendance
Explanation

BNSS section 35 keeps arrest tied to necessity. Where arrest is not required under section 35(1), the police officer issues a notice requiring the person to appear, and a compliant person is not to be arrested for that offence unless reasons are recorded.

Q3Under BNSS section 356, when may a Court proceed with the trial of a proclaimed offender in absentia?

A Immediately after the police file a charge-sheet, without recording any reason
B Only after ninety days have lapsed from framing of charge and the listed notice-and-warrant safeguards are complied with
C Only in petty summons cases punishable with fine alone
D Only after the offender gives written consent to be tried in absence
Explanation

BNSS section 356 creates a structured trial-in-absentia mechanism for a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial and has no immediate prospect of arrest. The Court must record reasons, wait at least ninety days from framing of charge, and satisfy procedural safeguards including consecutive warrants, publication and notice before the trial proceeds.

Q4In a prosecution, the party wants to submit a CCTV clip as an electronic record under section 63 of the BSA. Which certificate-related statement is most accurate?

A A certificate identifying the electronic record, describing its production and dealing with the section 63 conditions must be submitted with the record at each instance of admission.
B No certificate can ever be required once the court has physically seen the video file.
C The certificate is required only for emails, not for CCTV, mobile or other electronic records.
D The certificate must only state that the accused disputes the clip.
Explanation

Section 63(4) requires a certificate when a statement is given in evidence by virtue of section 63. The certificate must identify the electronic record, describe how it was produced, give appropriate device particulars, and deal with the conditions in section 63(2); it is submitted along with the record at each instance where it is offered for admission.

Q5Under Section 63(4) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when an electronic record is submitted for admission, which of the following is required as part of the certificate?

A A confession by the accused accepting the accuracy of the electronic record
B A statement that the record was downloaded only from a government website
C Identification of the electronic record, particulars of the device, and certification dealing with the statutory conditions
D A magistrate's prior permission before the record can be copied
Explanation

Section 63(4) requires a certificate to accompany the electronic record at each instance of submission for admission. The certificate must identify the record and production manner, give appropriate device particulars, and deal with the reliability conditions in Section 63(2), with the stated signing requirement.

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More questions

6In the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, section 304 defines 'snatching'. Which description best matches this offence?

ASuddenly, quickly, or forcibly seizing movable property from a person or from that person's possession in order to commit theft
BMoving a boundary mark to cause wrongful gain
CDishonestly inducing a person by deception to deliver property
DKeeping stolen property after knowing it was stolen

7From which date did the provisions of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 generally come into force?

A23 February 2024
B25 December 2023
C15 August 2024
D1 July 2024

8From which of the following Constitutions has the Indian Constitution borrowed the Directive Principles of State Policy?

ABritish Constitution
BCanadian Constitution
CIrish Constitution
DUS Constitution

9Under Article 368, which category of constitutional amendment requires ratification by at least one-half of the State legislatures in addition to the special majority in Parliament?

AAn amendment changing only the name of a State under the ordinary law-making procedure
BAn amendment affecting the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States.
CAn amendment adding a new Directive Principle without affecting federal provisions listed in Article 368
DAn amendment changing the official language provisions without touching Centre-State power distribution

10Section 113 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with terrorist acts. If a terrorist act does not result in death, what is the punishment stated for the person committing it?

ASimple imprisonment up to one month only
BFine only, with no imprisonment
CCommunity service only if the offender apologises
DImprisonment for not less than five years, which may extend to life, and fine

11Which constitutional provision gives binding force to the law declared by the Supreme Court of India on all courts within India?

AArticle 141
BArticle 148
CArticle 243A
DArticle 280

12Which feature best explains why the Indian Constitution is often described as federal with a strong unitary bias?

AIt divides powers between Union and States, but also gives the Union important powers such as residuary legislative authority and emergency powers.
BThe States can unilaterally amend the Union List whenever they consider it necessary.
CIt creates a loose confederation in which States retain sovereignty and may withdraw from the Union.
DThe Constitution has no written distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States.

13Match List I (State of India) with List II (Year of attaining statehood) and select the correct code:\nList I\nA. Goa\nB. Sikkim\nC. Telangana\nD. Uttarakhand\nList II\n1. 1975\n2. 1987\n3. 2000\n4. 2014

AA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
BA-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
CA-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
DA-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

14For admissibility of an electronic record under section 63 of the BSA, which description best captures the statutory idea of a computer output?

AOnly the original hard disk or mobile phone from which data was generated.
BInformation from an electronic record printed, stored, recorded or copied in specified electronic forms and produced by a computer or communication device.
CAny oral summary of a digital file given by a witness who saw the screen.
DOnly a paper printout personally signed by the investigating officer.

15A court is considering an email message forwarded through an electronic mail server. Under section 90 of the BSA, which presumption may the court make?

AIt may presume that every attachment to the email is independently proved as original evidence.
BIt may presume both that the message corresponds with what was fed for transmission and that the named sender definitely sent it.
CIt may presume that the message forwarded by the originator through an electronic mail server corresponds with the message fed into the originator's computer for transmission, but not the person by whom it was sent.
DIt must reject the message unless the originator and addressee both testify in court.

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