MCQ
Electoral Process MCQ - Practice Questions with Answers
Solve 94 Electoral Process questions for RAS/RPSC preparation.
Practice questions
Q1Consider the following statements: 1. The required deposit may be made with the returning officer in cash at the time of delivery of the nomination paper. 2. A receipt showing deposit in the Reserve Bank of India or in a Government Treasury may be enclosed with the nomination paper. 3. The cited provision recognises a receipt from the Reserve Bank of India or a Government Treasury, not a private-bank draft as the only proof. 4. The deposit condition is part of the requirement for being duly nominated. Which of the statements given above are correct?
All four statements are correct. Section 34 recognises cash with the returning officer or a receipt from the Reserve Bank of India or a Government Treasury, and makes deposit part of the valid nomination requirement.
Q2Consider the following statements regarding VVPAT paper-slip verification and counting: 1. Mandatory VVPAT verification is of randomly selected five polling stations per Assembly Constituency or Assembly Segment, as applicable. 2. The mandatory verification is to be conducted before completion of the last round of EVM counting. 3. The random selection is to be done by draw of lots by the Returning Officer in the presence of candidates/their agents and the General Observer. 4. A candidate may apply in writing to the Returning Officer for VVPAT paper-slip counting under Rule 56D after announcement of result-sheet entries. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. The EVM Manual provides for five randomly selected polling stations per Assembly Constituency/Segment, selection by draw of lots in the presence of specified stakeholders, and a candidate's written application under Rule 56D after result-sheet entries are announced. Statement 2 is false because the mandatory verification is after the completion of the last round of counting.
Q3Consider the following statements: 1. For a Parliamentary constituency, the general security deposit is Rs. 25,000. 2. For an Assembly constituency, the general security deposit is Rs. 10,000. 3. For an SC/ST candidate in an Assembly or Council constituency, the deposit is Rs. 12,500. 4. If a candidate files more than one nomination paper in the same constituency, only one deposit is required. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 1, 2 and 4 match Section 34. Statement 3 is false: Rs. 12,500 is the SC/ST deposit for a Parliamentary constituency; for an Assembly or Council constituency it is Rs. 5,000.
Q4Consider the following statements: 1. Article 325 provides for one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency. 2. Article 325 permits a special electoral roll to be claimed on the ground of religion. 3. Article 325 covers elections to either House of Parliament and to the House or either House of a State Legislature. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Article 325 provides one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency. Statement 2 is false because the article bars, rather than permits, special-roll claims on grounds such as religion. Statement 3 is correct because Article 325 expressly applies to elections to either House of Parliament and to the State Legislature.
Q5Consider the following statements: 1. Electoral rolls are to be revised before each general election to the Lok Sabha or a State Legislative Assembly, unless otherwise directed by the Election Commission for recorded reasons. 2. The Election Commission may direct a special revision of an electoral roll at any time for reasons to be recorded. 3. After the last date for nominations and before completion of that election, no direction for inclusion of a name in that constituency's electoral roll can be given under section 23. 4. An application for inclusion in the electoral roll must be denied if the applicant is unable to furnish an Aadhaar number. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct under sections 21 and 23 of the 1950 Act. Statement 4 is incorrect: section 23 says inability to furnish or intimate Aadhaar due to sufficient cause cannot lead to denial of inclusion or deletion of entries; alternate documents may be allowed.
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6Consider the following statements: 1. On receiving a nomination paper, the returning officer must inform the deliverer about the date, time and place fixed for scrutiny. 2. The returning officer must enter the serial number on the nomination paper. 3. The notice of nomination is to be affixed only after the counting of votes is completed. 4. The returning officer signs a certificate stating the date and hour at which the nomination paper was delivered. Which of the statements given above are correct?
7Consider the following statements: 1. Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of electoral rolls and conduct of elections in the Election Commission. 2. Under Article 324, elections to the offices of President and Vice-President are vested in the State Election Commissions. 3. The Election Commission may consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners as the President may fix. Which of the statements given above are correct?
8Consider the following statements: 1. For electoral rolls under Part III of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the qualifying dates include 1 January, 1 April, 1 July and 1 October. 2. A person is deemed ordinarily resident in a constituency merely because he owns a dwelling house there. 3. An overseas citizen of India who has not acquired another country's citizenship may be registered in the constituency where the Indian residence mentioned in his passport is located. 4. A person registered under the overseas-elector provision is never allowed to vote in that constituency. Which of the statements given above are correct?
9Consider the following statements: 1. Article 325 provides for separate communal electoral rolls for every territorial constituency. 2. A voter can claim inclusion in a special electoral roll on the ground of religion, race, caste or sex. 3. Article 325 applies only to elections to the House of the People and not to State Legislatures. Which of the statements given above are correct?
10Consider the following statements: 1. For certain other elections, the last date for making nominations is the seventh day after publication of the notification, subject to the public-holiday rule. 2. The scrutiny date is the day immediately following the last date for making nominations, subject to the public-holiday rule. 3. The last date for withdrawal is the seventh day after scrutiny. 4. The first poll date, if a poll is necessary, cannot be earlier than the seventh day after the last date for withdrawal. Which of the statements given above are correct?
11Consider the following statements: 1. A candidate's deposit is forfeited merely because the candidate is not elected, irrespective of votes polled. 2. In an election where a poll has been taken, a non-elected candidate's deposit is forfeited if valid votes polled by him do not exceed one-sixth of total valid votes. 3. In a proportional-representation election, the Act also uses a one-sixth threshold linked to the votes prescribed as sufficient to secure return. Which of the statements given above are correct?
121. Section 61 of RPA 1951 enables rules for marking an elector’s thumb or another finger with indelible ink before delivery of ballot paper. 2. Section 61 also enables rules requiring production of an identity card before delivery of ballot paper where electors have been supplied such cards under the RPA 1950 rules. 3. Section 61 prohibits delivery of ballot paper to a person who already has the prescribed mark on the finger at the time of applying. 4. Section 61 provides that the indelible ink mark is to be made after the elector has cast the vote. Which of the statements given above are correct?
13Consider the following statements: 1. Delimitation Commissions in India have been constituted five times. 2. Orders of the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court. 3. Copies of Delimitation Commission orders are laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are permissible by them. Which of the statements given above are correct?
141. RPA 1951 Section 33A requires a candidate to furnish information on specified pending cases involving offences punishable with imprisonment for two years or more where a charge has been framed. 2. Section 33A also covers conviction and sentence to imprisonment for one year or more, subject to its stated exclusions. 3. The candidate or proposer must deliver a sworn affidavit in the prescribed form verifying the Section 33A information at the time of delivering the nomination paper. 4. Section 33A requires the returning officer to keep the affidavit confidential until polling is over. Which of the statements given above are correct?
151. RPA 1951 Section 80A gives the High Court jurisdiction to try election petitions. 2. Ordinarily, that jurisdiction is exercised by a single Judge assigned by the Chief Justice. 3. An election petition can be presented by any candidate at such election or any elector within forty-five days from the date of election of the returned candidate, subject to Section 81 wording. 4. An appeal from every High Court order under Section 98 or 99 lies to the Election Commission. Which of the statements given above are correct?