MCQ
upsc-p1-environment-laws-institutions MCQ - Practice Questions with Answers
Solve 9 upsc-p1-environment-laws-institutions questions for RAS/RPSC preparation.
Practice questions
Q1Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below. List I (Institution) A. Central Pollution Control Board B. State Pollution Control Board C. National Green Tribunal D. State Environment Impact Assessment Authority List II (Principal role) 1. Grants or rejects State-level environmental clearance after expert appraisal 2. Specialised adjudication, compensation, restitution and statutory appeals 3. Standards, coordination, monitoring and national pollution programmes 4. Plant-level consent, inspection, sampling and State-level enforcement
The Central Board coordinates standards, monitoring and national programmes; the State Board handles consent and plant-level enforcement; the Tribunal adjudicates and can award compensation or restitution; and the State Environment Impact Assessment Authority takes the State-level clearance decision after expert appraisal.
Q2Consider the following two statements about environmental clearance under the EIA Notification, 2006: 1. Expert Appraisal Committees and State Expert Appraisal Committees appraise projects and make recommendations. 2. The regulatory authority, such as the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change or the State Environment Impact Assessment Authority, grants or rejects clearance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Both statements are correct. The expert committee performs appraisal and recommends a course of action; the regulatory authority issues the final grant or rejection. Treating an expert recommendation itself as the clearance would collapse two distinct steps.
Q3With reference to the Environment Protection Act, 1986, consider the following statements: 1. Section 3 confines the Central Government to an advisory role and does not permit measures for preventing pollution. 2. Section 5 permits binding directions, including closure or regulation of an industry and stoppage or regulation of utility services. 3. Section 6 supports rule-making on environmental standards and safeguards for handling hazardous substances. Which of the statements given above are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Section 5 authorises binding directions of the stated kind, while Section 6 provides rule-making power for standards and safeguards. Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 3 gives the Central Government broad power to take measures for protecting and improving environmental quality and preventing, controlling and abating pollution.
Q4A listed project has obtained environmental clearance under the EIA route. Consider the following statements: 1. The clearance automatically serves as forest clearance if forest land is involved. 2. It automatically replaces Consent to Operate under the water and air pollution laws. 3. Municipal and building permissions can cure the absence of prior environmental clearance where the EIA notification requires it. Which of the statements given above are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
None of the statements is correct. Environmental clearance, forest clearance, pollution consent and local permissions retain separate legal identities. One approval may be required before another in practice, but it does not erase the other statutory requirements.
Q5Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below. List I (Case) A. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1986 B. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India, 1996 C. M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, 1996 D. A.P. Pollution Control Board v. Prof. M.V. Nayudu, 1999 List II (Principle or emphasis) 1. Public trust doctrine 2. Scientific uncertainty and need for expert bodies 3. Absolute liability for hazardous industries 4. Precautionary principle and polluter pays principle
The oleum-gas case developed absolute liability; Vellore accepted the precautionary and polluter pays principles as part of Indian environmental law; Kamal Nath applied the public trust doctrine; and Nayudu stressed scientific uncertainty and the value of expert bodies in environmental decision-making.
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6Consider the following two statements: 1. The Central Pollution Control Board was constituted under the Water Act, 1974 and also performs functions under the Air Act, 1981. 2. The Central Pollution Control Board is a specialised adjudicatory body that decides all environmental compensation claims. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
7Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal: 1. Its original jurisdiction under Section 14 concerns substantial questions relating to environment arising from implementation of enactments in Schedule I. 2. Under Section 19, it is guided by principles of natural justice and is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 or the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. 3. The Wildlife Protection Act is expressly included in Schedule I of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Which of the statements given above are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
8Arrange the following stages of the EIA process in their correct procedural order: A. Appraisal B. Screening C. Public consultation D. Scoping Select the correct answer using the code given below.
9Arrange the following legal developments in chronological order, beginning with the earliest: A. Enactment of the National Green Tribunal Act B. Enactment of the Environment Protection Act C. Enactment of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act D. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment inserting Articles 48A and 51A(g) Select the correct answer using the code given below.