RAS 2024 Prelims — Previous Year Questions with Answers
150 questions with answer keys and explanations.
- Q1
The four segments of the Golden Quadrilateral join the following cities: A. Delhi-Mumbai B. Mumbai-Chennai C. Chennai-Kolkata D. Kolkata-Delhi Consider the length of the above segments in descending order and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A. C, D, A, B ✓ Correct
- B. C, D, B, A
- C. D, C, B, A
- D. D, C, A, B
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Golden Quadrilateral connects Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata via the National Highway network. The approximate segment lengths are: Delhi-Kolkata about 1,453 km, Chennai-Kolkata about 1,684 km, Delhi-Mumbai about 1,419 km and Mumbai-Chennai about 1,290 km. Arranging these segments in descending order of length gives Chennai-Kolkata, Kolkata-Delhi, Delhi-Mumbai and Mumbai-Chennai, which corresponds to the sequence C, D, A, B and matches option (a). The total length of the Golden Quadrilateral is roughly 5,846 km.
- Q2
Consider the following statements: A. Luni Basin and Shekhawati region are the Sub-regions of Rajasthan Bangar. B. Ghaggar Plain covers mostly Hanumangarh and Ganganagar district. C. Nagaur uplands have salty lakes and inland drainage. D. Aravalli ranges are rich in all types of minerals. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A. A and B
- B. A, B and C ✓ Correct
- C. B, C and D
- D. A, B and D
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q3
Which of the following group of districts of Rajasthan is correctly arranged in ascending order as per average rainfall during South-West Monsoon?
- A. Jalore, Jaipur, Kota ✓ Correct
- B. Jaisalmer, Banswara, Rajsamand
- C. Nagaur, Dhaulpur, Ajmer
- D. Churu, Baran, Bhilwara
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q4
Which is not a correct match? Nuclear Power Plant - State
- A. Kalpakkam - Tamil Nadu
- B. Kakrapar - Gujarat
- C. Kaiga - Tamil Nadu ✓ Correct
- D. Narora - Uttar Pradesh
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Kaiga Atomic Power Station is located in the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka, not Tamil Nadu, so the match Kaiga - Tamil Nadu is incorrect. Kalpakkam is correctly placed in Tamil Nadu, Kakrapar in Gujarat, and Narora in Uttar Pradesh. Therefore option (c) is the wrong match.
- Q5
Which type of soil is dominant in Jaipur, Dausa and Alwar districts?
- A. Entisol
- B. Inceptisols
- C. Vertisols
- D. Alfisols ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The eastern plain districts of Rajasthan such as Jaipur, Dausa and Alwar are dominated by Alfisols, which are reddish, well-developed soils with a clay-rich subsoil and moderate fertility, supporting wheat, mustard and pulses. Entisols dominate the western desert tracts, Vertisols are found in parts of Hadoti, and Inceptisols occur in younger alluvial plains. Hence option (d) Alfisols is correct.
- Q6
In the year 2021-22, contribution of Rajasthan in total production of Bajra in the country (in percentage) was
- A. 46.30
- B. 87.69
- C. 38.98 ✓ Correct
- D. 34.69
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q7
Medtech Medical Devices Park is located at
- A. Ganeshwar Extension, Sikar
- B. Maal Ki Toos, Udaipur
- C. Nainwa, Bundi
- D. Boranada, Jodhpur (undivided) ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
RIICO's official layout plan places the Medical Devices Park at Boranada Extension, Jodhpur. The site is linked with industrial infrastructure and common facilities for medical-device manufacturing. Hence option (d) Boranada, Jodhpur is the correct location.
- Q8
In which district of Rajasthan 'Khadin' is a popular method of water conservation?
- A. Nagaur
- B. Bikaner
- C. Jaisalmer ✓ Correct
- D. Pali
Answer: C
Show explanation
Khadin is a traditional rainwater-harvesting and cultivation system practised in the Thar desert, where runoff from upland rocky catchments is impounded behind a long earthen embankment to support cropping on the moisture-retentive soil downslope. Although the technique is also seen in Barmer and Bikaner, it is most popularly associated with Jaisalmer district, where it was developed by Paliwal Brahmins in the 15th century. Hence option (c) Jaisalmer is correct.
- Q9
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: List-I (District): A. Udaipur B. Bundi C. Bharatpur D. Alwar; List-II (River): i. Sabi & Ruparel ii. Gambhiri & Parvati iii. Som & Jakham iv. Kural
- A. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
- B. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
- C. A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
- D. A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Udaipur lies in the Som and Jakham basin (both tributaries of the Mahi); Bundi is drained by Kural (a tributary of the Mez/Chambal system); Bharatpur falls in the Gambhiri-Parvati area, and Alwar is drained by the Sabi and Ruparel rivers. The match A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i corresponds to option (d).
- Q10
At which of the following places, asbestos mines are located in Rajasthan?
- A. Arjunpura and Piparda ✓ Correct
- B. Kura and Mangol
- C. Karpura and Fatehgarh
- D. Depura and Dingri
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q11
The most important resources of lignite in Rajasthan are located at
- A. Palana, Agucha and Merta
- B. Palana, Kasnau and Jagpura
- C. Kapurdi, Merta and Kasnau ✓ Correct
- D. Kapurdi, Palana and Jagpura
Answer: C
Show explanation
The principal lignite reserves of Rajasthan are located in Barmer-Sanchore basin and Bikaner-Nagaur basin. The most important deposits being mined are Kapurdi and Jalipa in Barmer, Palana-Barsingsar in Bikaner and Giral/Jagpura in Barmer. Among the given options, Kapurdi, Palana and Jagpura together correctly cover the most important lignite resources, matching option (d).
- Q12
Which is not a correct match? Conservation Reserve (as on May 2023) - District
- A. Rankhar - Jalore
- B. Mansamata - Jhunjhunu
- C. Sorsan - Bundi ✓ Correct
- D. Hamirgarh - Bhilwara
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q13
Mount Abu and Ranakpur are included in which tourist circuit?
- A. Dhundhar
- B. Shekhawati
- C. Godwar ✓ Correct
- D. Mewar
Answer: C
Show explanation
Rajasthan Tourism organises destinations into circuits based on geography and culture. The Godwar circuit covers the south-western tract south of the Aravallis and includes Mount Abu, Ranakpur, Jalore and Bali. Dhundhar covers Jaipur region, Shekhawati covers Sikar-Jhunjhunu-Churu, and Mewar centres on Udaipur-Chittorgarh. Hence Mount Abu and Ranakpur fall in the Godwar circuit, matching option (c).
- Q14
The national executive of which political party called for the dissolution of the Constituent Assembly and its re-election by adult suffrage?
- A. Hindu Mahasabha
- B. Socialist Party ✓ Correct
- C. Swaraj Party
- D. Muslim League
Answer: B
Show explanation
RPSC's final answer key fixes this item to Socialist Party in the stored option order. The demand was to dissolve the existing Constituent Assembly and hold a fresh election on adult suffrage. Therefore option (b), Socialist Party, is correct; Hindu Mahasabha, Swaraj Party and Muslim League are not the keyed answer for this question.
- Q15
The correct descending order of districts in Rajasthan based on total literacy rate (census 2011) is
- A. Jaipur, Jhunjhunu, Kota, Sikar, Alwar
- B. Kota, Jaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Alwar ✓ Correct
- C. Jhunjhunu, Kota, Sikar, Jaipur, Alwar
- D. Kota, Jhunjhunu, Jaipur, Alwar, Sikar
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q16
Fundamental Rights provided by which of the following groups of Articles are granted only to 'Citizens' of India?
- A. Articles 14, 20, 23 and 30
- B. Articles 15, 21, 25 and 28
- C. Articles 20, 21, 25 and 30
- D. Articles 15, 16, 19 and 30 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Fundamental rights available only to Indian citizens are those under Article 15 (prohibition of discrimination), Article 16 (equality of opportunity in public employment), Article 19 (six freedoms), Article 29 (protection of language, script, culture) and Article 30 (minorities' right to administer educational institutions). Articles 14, 20, 21, 23, 25 and 28 are available to all persons including non-citizens. Among the options, only set (d) Articles 15, 16, 19 and 30 contains exclusively citizen-only rights.
- Q17
In which year it was inserted in the Constitution of India that the State shall secure free legal aid to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities?
- A. 1978
- B. 1976 ✓ Correct
- C. 1975
- D. 1979
Answer: B
Show explanation
Article 39A, which directs the State to secure equal justice and free legal aid to citizens unable to afford it owing to economic or other disabilities, was inserted into the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. The 42nd Amendment came into force on 3 January 1977 but was enacted in 1976. Hence option (b) 1976 is correct.
- Q18
Match List-A with List-B and identify the correct answer from the codes given below: List-A (Case): A. Indira Gandhi V. Raj Narain B. Minerva Mills V. Union of India C. Kihoto Hollohan V. Zachillu D. P. Sambamurthy V. State of A.P.; List-B (Amendment challenged): i. 42nd Amendment ii. 52nd Amendment iii. 39th Amendment iv. 32nd Amendment
- A. A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
- B. A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
- C. A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
- D. A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975) struck down clause 4 of the 39th Amendment which sought to exclude the PM's election from judicial review. Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) invalidated portions of the 42nd Amendment. Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillu (1992) upheld the Tenth Schedule inserted by the 52nd Amendment but struck down its bar on judicial review. P. Sambamurthy v. State of A.P. (1987) struck down clauses inserted by the 32nd Amendment. So A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv, matching option (d).
- Q19
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the election of the President of India?
- A. The President of India is elected by the members of an Electoral College consisting of (a) the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and the Union Territories with Legislative Assembly.
- B. Value of vote for each of the members of the Electoral College is decided based on the population census of 1971 and it will continue to be so till population of the first census taken after the year 2026 have been published.
- C. The elections are held in accordance with the system of Proportional Representation by means of single transferable vote.
- D. Every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one hundred in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Statement (d) is incorrect: under Article 55 each elected MLA has as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand (not one hundred) in the quotient obtained by dividing the State's population by the total number of elected Assembly members, with adjustment for any remainder of 500 or more. The other statements correctly describe the electoral college, the freezing of population to the 1971 census until publication of the first census after 2026, and the system of proportional representation by single transferable vote.
- Q20
Identify the correct statement regarding the Election Commission of India.
- A. Election Commission of India is a permanent Constitutional Body and it was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January, 1952.
- B. The concept of multi-member Commission has been in operation since 1995 with decision making power by majority vote.
- C. Under the Constitution, the Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. ✓ Correct
- D. The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners and they have tenure of five years, or up to the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier.
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q21 · Indian Constitution & Governance
Which of the following statements regarding the powers of the speaker of Lok Sabha are correct? Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (i) The speaker presides over a joint sitting of both the houses of Parliament. (ii) When a Money Bill is transferred from the Lower House to the Upper House, the speaker shall endorse on the bill his certificate that it is a Money Bill. (iii) While a resolution for his removal is under consideration, the speaker shall neither preside nor take part in its proceedings. (iv) The speaker does not vote in the House except when there is equality of votes.
- A. Only (i) and (iii)
- B. Only (i) and (ii)
- C. Only (i), (ii) and (iv) ✓ Correct
- D. Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: C
Show explanation
Under Article 118(4), the Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of both Houses. In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides. Joint sittings are called under Article 108 to resolve deadlocks between the two Houses.
- Q22
Which of the following is a matter on which the Finance Commission notified by the Ministry of Finance on 31st December, 2023 shall not make its recommendation?
- A. The distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be or may be divided between them under Chapter I Part XII of the Constitution.
- B. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
- C. The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities.
- D. Review the present arrangements on Financing Climate Management initiatives. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Terms of Reference of the Sixteenth Finance Commission notified by the Ministry of Finance on 31 December 2023 cover devolution of taxes between Centre and States, principles of grants-in-aid, and measures to augment State Consolidated Funds for Panchayats and Municipalities. Reviewing financing of climate management initiatives is not one of its mandated terms of reference. Hence option (d) is the matter on which the Commission shall not make recommendations.
- Q23
Consider the following statements and identify the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) The Congress won 145 Lok Sabha seats in 2004 election. (b) The BJP won 133 Lok Sabha seats in 2004 election. (c) The CPI(M) won 48 Lok Sabha seats in 2004 election.
- A. Only (a) is correct.
- B. Only (a) and (b) are correct.
- C. Only (b) and (c) are correct.
- D. Only (a) and (c) are correct.
Explanation coming soon.
- Q24
The Central Vigilance Commission was formed on the basis of the recommendations of which of the following committee?
- A. Santhanam Committee ✓ Correct
- B. Kelkar Committee
- C. Swaran Singh Committee
- D. Bakshi Tek Chand Committee
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by an executive resolution of the Government of India in February 1964 on the recommendation of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption headed by K. Santhanam. Later, by the CVC Act 2003, it was given statutory status. The Kelkar Committee dealt with tax reforms, Swaran Singh Committee with the 42nd Amendment, and Bakshi Tek Chand Committee with other matters. Hence option (a) Santhanam Committee is correct.
- Q25
Which of the following Chief Minister faced President's Rule in Rajasthan for maximum number of times?
- A. Hari Dev Joshi
- B. Bhairon Singh Shekhawat ✓ Correct
- C. Jai Narayan Vyas
- D. Shiv Charan Mathur
Answer: B
Show explanation
Hari Dev Joshi served three separate terms as Chief Minister of Rajasthan and his governments were dismissed and President's Rule imposed during his tenure on multiple occasions in the 1980s and 1990s, more than for any other CM. Bhairon Singh Shekhawat's government was also dismissed but fewer times. Hence option (a) Hari Dev Joshi is correct.
- Q26
As of the end of the November 2024, how many women were there in the Rajasthan Council of Ministers?
- A. Only 1
- B. Only 2 ✓ Correct
- C. Only 3
- D. Only 5
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q27
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding subordinate legislation in Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?
- A. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines all 'orders' framed in pursuance of the provision of the constitution or a statute delegating power to subordinate authority to make such order.
- B. The Committee may examine provisions of Bills which seek to delegate powers to make orders.
- C. Speaker refers Bills containing provisions for delegation of legislative powers to the Committee.
- D. This is done by Rule 240 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q28
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the Governor of Rajasthan?
- A. On the basis of the recommendation of the States Reorganisation Commission, the institution of Rajpramukh was abolished.
- B. The institution of Rajpramukh was abolished by the 7th Constitutional amendment.
- C. Gurumukh Nihal Singh was appointed as the first Governor of Rajasthan on 1st November, 1956 AD. ✓ Correct
- D. Haribhau Kisanrao Bagde assumed the office of the Governor of Rajasthan on 31st July, 2024.
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q29
Who becomes the chairperson of District Planning Committee in Rajasthan?
- A. District Collector
- B. Chief Executive Officer of Zila Parishad
- C. Member of Parliament
- D. Zila Pramukh ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Under Article 243ZD of the Constitution and the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, the District Planning Committee consolidates plans prepared by panchayats and municipalities and forwards them to the State Government. In Rajasthan the Zila Pramukh, the elected head of the Zila Parishad, is the chairperson of the District Planning Committee. The District Collector and CEO of Zila Parishad assist as official members. Hence option (d) Zila Pramukh is correct.
- Q30
By which Act, the Jaipur Development Authority was established?
- A. Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1982 ✓ Correct
- B. Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1983
- C. Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1984
- D. Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1985
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Jaipur Development Authority was constituted under the Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1982, which received Rajasthan Governor's assent and provided for the JDA's establishment, its functions of planned development of Jaipur region, master plan, land acquisition and regulatory powers. Hence option (a) Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1982 is correct.
- Q31 · Rajasthan History, Art & Culture
Which of the following group of princely states had enacted legislations on Panchayats prior to independence?
- A. Alwar, Banswara, Karauli, Sirohi
- B. Banswara, Bikaner, Bharatpur, Bundi
- C. Jodhpur, Jaipur, Udaipur, Sirohi ✓ Correct
- D. Karauli, Bundi, Alwar, Jaisalmer
Answer: C
Show explanation
The princely states of Jodhpur, Jaipur, Udaipur, and Sirohi had enacted legislations on Panchayats prior to independence. These larger and more progressive princely states had some form of local self-government institutions before 1947.
- Q32
Which Article of the Constitution prescribes mandatory consultation with RPSC on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under Government of Rajasthan?
- A. Article 320(3) ✓ Correct
- B. Article 318(1)
- C. Article 322(2)
- D. Article 325(4)
Answer: A
Show explanation
Article 320(3) of the Constitution lays down the matters on which the Union Public Service Commission and State Public Service Commissions, including RPSC, must be consulted. These include disciplinary matters affecting persons serving the Government in a civil capacity, including memorials or petitions relating to such matters. Hence option (a) Article 320(3) is correct.
- Q33
From which of the following date Pramil Kumar Mathur assumed the office of the Registrar General of Rajasthan High Court?
- A. 20/02/2024
- B. 20/03/2024 ✓ Correct
- C. 20/04/2024
- D. 20/05/2024
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q34
Under Section 7 of the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Deputy Lokayukta Act, 1973, the Lokayukta is empowered to investigate allegations against ministers and public servants in certain cases. Which of the following subject is not part of those investigations?
- A. Unreasonable harm or suffering caused by public servants.
- B. Abusing his official position as a public servant to obtain illegal benefits for himself or any other person.
- C. Sexual harassment of women, caste discrimination and violence against children. ✓ Correct
- D. Can be related to being guilty of corruption or lack of transparency in the capacity of a public servant.
Answer: C
Show explanation
Section 7 of the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayuktas Act, 1973 empowers the Lokayukta to investigate allegations of corruption, abuse of position for illegal benefit, lack of transparency or unreasonable harm caused by public servants and ministers. Sexual harassment of women, caste discrimination and violence against children fall under specific Acts and forums and are not within the Lokayukta's investigative ambit under Section 7. Hence option (c) is not part of those investigations.
- Q35
What is the amount of security deposit to contest the election of a Mayor by a candidate belonging to the general category?
- A. Rs. 10,000
- B. Rs. 20,000
- C. Rs. 30,000 ✓ Correct
- D. Rs. 40,000
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q36
State Information Commissioner is appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a Committee. Who of the following is not a member of this Committee?
- A. The Chief Minister
- B. The Leader of opposition in Legislative Assembly
- C. A cabinet minister to be nominated by the Chief Minister
- D. Chief Justice of High Court ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Under the Right to Information Act, 2005 the State Information Commissioner is appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee comprising the Chief Minister (Chairperson), the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly and a Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister. The Chief Justice of the High Court is not a member of this Committee. Hence option (d) is correct.
- Q37
Among the following Chairpersons of Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission, who could complete a five year term?
- A. Justice Ms. Kanta Bhatnagar
- B. Justice N.K. Jain ✓ Correct
- C. Justice S. Sageer Ahmed
- D. Justice Prakash Tatia
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q38
The aim of citizen's charter is not -
- A. Quality and time frame service delivery
- B. Citizen friendly governance
- C. Accountable Government
- D. To create effective hearing system of public demands ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Citizens' Charter movement aims at quality time-bound service delivery, citizen-friendly governance and creating an accountable government by laying down service standards, grievance redressal and transparency norms. Creating an effective hearing system for public demands is the function of mechanisms like public hearings or social audit, not the principal aim of a Citizens' Charter. Hence option (d) is not an aim of the Citizens' Charter.
- Q39
In which of the following year annual growth rate of Gross National Income and Net National Income on both current prices and constant prices were Negative in India?
- A. 2018-19
- B. 2019-20
- C. 2020-21 ✓ Correct
- D. 2021-22
Answer: C
Show explanation
On account of the COVID-19 pandemic-induced contraction, the annual growth rates of both Gross National Income and Net National Income at current as well as constant prices recorded negative values for India in 2020-21. The economy contracted by around 5.8 percent in real GDP terms that year. The other listed years show positive growth. Hence option (c) 2020-21 is correct.
- Q40
Which of the following statement is related to the benefit of the 'Input Tax Credit Mechanism' of GST?
- A. This avoid double taxation. ✓ Correct
- B. This avoid tax on production.
- C. This provide tax relief to start-ups.
- D. There is no need to keep records for producers.
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Input Tax Credit mechanism under GST allows a registered taxpayer to claim credit for the tax paid on inputs against the tax payable on outputs at each stage of the supply chain. This eliminates the cascading effect of taxes, that is, tax on tax, thereby avoiding double taxation. The other options misrepresent the mechanism. Hence option (a) is the correct benefit of the Input Tax Credit mechanism.
- Q41
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding RAJ NIVESH Portal of Rajasthan?
- A. RAJ NIVESH portal provides a single point (online) interface and a time bound clearance system by acting as a one-stop information/registration/approval/tracking centre for clearances/approvals.
- B. It is a 'One Stop Shop' (OSS) facility directly under Chief Minister to facilitate large investment proposals more effectively and expedite requisite approvals/clearances for the same under one roof. ✓ Correct
- C. Rules for the One Stop Shop has been notified on 26.11.2020.
- D. The portal also provides updated information relating to relevant rules, regulations, orders and policy initiatives and schemes for guidance of investors.
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q42
Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of inflation in India? A. Core inflation include the prices of food and energy. B. Headline inflation exclude food inflation. C. Headline inflation is more volatile in nature than core inflation. Select the answer using the codes given below:
- A. A and B only
- B. A and C only
- C. B and C only
- D. Only C ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Headline inflation includes all goods and services in the consumption basket including food and energy, while core inflation strips out volatile food and fuel components. Therefore statement A is wrong (core excludes food and energy) and statement B is wrong (headline includes, not excludes, food). Statement C is correct because headline inflation, including volatile components, fluctuates more than core inflation. Hence only C is correct, matching option (d).
- Q43
In List-I, the names of agricultural crops are given and in List-II, the names of the states which stood first in the production of these crops in 2021-22 are given. Match them by using codes: List-I: A. Nutricereals B. Total pulses C. Groundnut D. Soyabean; List-II: i. Rajasthan ii. Karnataka iii. Madhya Pradesh iv. Maharashtra v. Gujarat
- A. A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
- B. A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
- C. A-ii, B-iii, C-v, D-iv ✓ Correct
- D. A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-iii
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q44 · Indian Economy
Consider the following statements regarding 'National Food Security Act' (NFSA) in India: A. It was enacted on July 5, 2013. B. Around 50 crore persons have been covered under NFSA at present. C. The Act legally entitles upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized food grains. Choose the correct option using codes:
- A. Both B and C are correct.
- B. Both A and B are correct.
- C. Both A and C are correct. ✓ Correct
- D. A, B and C are correct.
Answer: C
Show explanation
The National Food Security Act was enacted on 5 July 2013. It provides subsidized food grains to approximately two-thirds of India's population at ₹1/2/3 per kg for coarse cereals/wheat/rice respectively through the PDS.
- Q45
Consider the following statements regarding World Happiness Report - 2024: A. India ranked 126th out of more than 140 countries, which is lower than its neighbouring countries including China, Nepal, Pakistan, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh. B. India's ranking has remained relatively stagnant over the years, indicating limited progress in improving the overall happiness and well-being of its population. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A. Only A
- B. Only B ✓ Correct
- C. Both A and B
- D. Neither A nor B
Answer: B
Show explanation
In the World Happiness Report 2024, India was ranked 126th out of 143 countries. However its rank was higher than several listed neighbours: Pakistan was 108th, Nepal 93rd and China 60th, so statement A is incorrect when it claims India ranked lower than these countries. India's ranking has indeed remained largely stagnant in the lower band over successive editions, so statement B is correct. Hence only B is correct, matching option (b).
- Q46
Worker to Population Ratio (WPR) is defined as
- A. Percentage of employed persons in labour force
- B. Percentage of employed persons in working age population
- C. Percentage of employed persons in total population ✓ Correct
- D. Percentage of working age population in total population
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Worker Population Ratio is defined by the National Statistical Office's Periodic Labour Force Survey as the percentage of employed persons in the total population. Percentage of employed persons in labour force is the Employment Rate, while percentage of employed persons in working-age population is the Employment to Working-age Population Ratio. Hence option (c) is correct.
- Q47
Which of the following is not associated with financial sector reforms in India initiated after 1991?
- A. Capital adequacy
- B. Non-performing assets
- C. F.R.B.M. Act (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management) ✓ Correct
- D. SARFAESI Act
Answer: C
Show explanation
Capital adequacy norms (Basel-based prudential regulation), the framework for resolving non-performing assets and the SARFAESI Act 2002 are all components of post-1991 financial sector reforms. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act 2003 is a fiscal sector reform aimed at limiting government deficits, not a financial sector reform. Hence option (c) FRBM Act is not associated with financial sector reforms.
- Q48
Consider the following statements regarding fiscal deficit of Rajasthan: A. The actual fiscal deficit in the year 2022-23 has been 3.76 percent of the State GDP. B. This is less than the limit prescribed by the F.R.B.M. Act, 2005. C. The fiscal deficit of 2022-23 was higher than that of 2021-22. Choose the correct option:
- A. Both A and C are correct. ✓ Correct
- B. Both A and B are correct.
- C. Both B and C are correct.
- D. All A, B and C are correct.
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q49
Consider the following statements regarding targets of Rajasthan Mineral Policy - 2024: A. Provide employment to 50 lakh people by 2029-30 and over 1 crore people (direct and indirect) by 2046-47. B. Enhance the mineral sector's contribution to state's GSDP from 3.4 percent in 2023-24 to 5 percent by 2029-30 and to 8 percent by 2046-47. C. Expand the number of minerals under extraction from 58 to 70 by 2047. Which of the above statements are correct?
- A. A and B only
- B. B and C only
- C. A and C only
- D. A, B and C ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q50
The correct share of various sectors in Gross Fixed Capital Formation of Rajasthan in descending order is
- A. Manufacturing, Mining, Agriculture, Construction
- B. Construction, Agriculture, Manufacturing, Mining
- C. Construction, Manufacturing, Agriculture, Mining ✓ Correct
- D. Manufacturing, Agriculture, Mining, Construction
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q51
Ease of Doing Business ranking for the states in India is released by -
- A. Department of Industry and Commerce
- B. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade ✓ Correct
- C. Investment Promotion Bureau
- D. Rajasthan Small Industry Corporation Limited (RAJSICO)
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Business Reform Action Plan (BRAP) ranking of States and Union Territories on Ease of Doing Business is released by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, in collaboration with the World Bank in earlier years. Hence option (b) DPIIT is correct.
- Q52
Which of the following has been formed in place of Chief Minister's Rajasthan Economic Transformation Advisory Council (CMRETAC)?
- A. Rajasthan Skill and Livelihoods Development Corporation (RSLDC)
- B. Rajasthan Institute for Transformation and Innovation (RITI) ✓ Correct
- C. Rajasthan Centre of Advanced Technology (R-CAT)
- D. Rajasthan Grameen Aajeevika Vikas Parishad (RAJEEVIKA)
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Government of Rajasthan dissolved the Chief Minister's Rajasthan Economic Transformation Advisory Council and replaced it with the Rajasthan Institute for Transformation and Innovation (RITI), modelled broadly on NITI Aayog, to advise on policy, planning and reforms. Hence option (b) RITI is correct.
- Q53
Which of the following park/zone has not been developed by RIICO in Rajasthan?
- A. Medtech Medical Devices Park - Boranada, Jodhpur
- B. Integrated Resource Recovery Park - Jamwa Ramgarh, Jaipur
- C. Sports Goods and Toys Zone - Khushkheda, Bhiwadi
- D. Agro Food Park - Udaipur ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q54
Rajasthan Government announced M-Sand Policy in the year 2024. This will remain in force -
- A. until 31 March, 2029 or till a new policy is announced ✓ Correct
- B. until 31 March, 2030 or till a new policy is announced
- C. until 31 March, 2032 or till a new policy is announced
- D. until 30 June, 2029 or till a new policy is announced
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q55
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I (New Industrial areas developed by RIICO in the year 2023-24): A. Nadol B. Dharmpura C. Umriya D. Maal ki Toos; List-II (Place): i. Udaipur ii. Jhalawar iii. Barmer iv. Pali
- A. A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
- B. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i ✓ Correct
- C. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
- D. A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q56
Which of the following statements are correct about PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana? (i) To install Solar plants on one crore houses to provide upto 300 unit free electricity every month. (ii) Provision of 30 percent subsidy for setting up rooftop solar plants. (iii) 100 percent online system for registration, application, approval & grant. (iv) Provision of loan at bank interest 4 percent to each applicant.
- A. (i) & (iv)
- B. (i), (ii) & (iii)
- C. (i) & (iii) ✓ Correct
- D. (i), (iii) & (iv)
Answer: C
Show explanation
PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, launched in February 2024, aims to install rooftop solar plants on one crore households providing up to 300 units of free electricity per month, with a fully online registration, application, approval and disbursement system. The subsidy structure provides up to 60 percent for the first 2 kW and 40 percent for additional capacity, not a flat 30 percent. The collateral-free loan is now available at 5.75 percent (repo rate plus 0.50 bps), not 4 percent. Hence statements (i) and (iii) are correct, matching option (c).
- Q57
Who among the following are eligible for Aastha Scheme in Rajasthan?
- A. Persons with specially abled category.
- B. Specially abled category persons with more than 40 percent disability
- C. BPL card holders.
- D. Families in which 2 or more people are specially abled category with more than 40 percent disability. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Under Rajasthan's Aastha Card Scheme, families in which two or more members are specially abled with more than 40 percent disability are issued Aastha cards so that benefits available to BPL card-holder families can be made available to them. Hence option (d) is correct.
- Q58
Mukhyamantri Svanidhi Yojana of Rajasthan aims to
- A. empower BPL families
- B. empower SC/ST families
- C. empower street vendors ✓ Correct
- D. empower pregnant and lactating women
Answer: C
Show explanation
Mukhyamantri Svanidhi Yojana of Rajasthan, launched on the lines of the central PM SVANidhi scheme, aims to empower urban street vendors by providing collateral-free working-capital loans to help them restart and expand their micro-enterprises. Hence option (c) empower street vendors is correct.
- Q59
In cataract the natural lens becomes cloudy because of change in which of the following?
- A. Protein ✓ Correct
- B. Carbohydrate
- C. Fat
- D. Tear glands
Answer: A
Show explanation
A cataract develops when the proteins in the natural lens of the eye undergo denaturation and aggregation due to ageing, ultraviolet exposure or oxidative damage. This protein change scatters light and clouds the lens, leading to blurred vision. Carbohydrates, fats and tear glands are not the structural cause of lens opacification. Hence option (a) Protein is correct.
- Q60
Which of the following are units of the pressure? (A) bar (B) Pa (C) torr (D) atm Choose the correct option:
- A. Only (B) and (D)
- B. Only (B), (C) and (D)
- C. Only (A), (B) and (D)
- D. All (A), (B), (C) and (D) ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Pressure can be expressed in several units. The pascal (Pa) is the SI unit; the bar equals 100,000 Pa; the torr corresponds to 1 mm of mercury and equals about 133.322 Pa; the standard atmosphere (atm) equals 101325 Pa. All four are valid units of pressure used in physics, chemistry and engineering. Hence option (d) all of bar, Pa, torr and atm is correct.
- Q61
The main objective of 'Rajasthan Urban Sector Development Programme (Phase-III)' is:
- A. to improve health services in urban areas.
- B. to improve school education in urban areas.
- C. to improve service delivery in water supply, sewerage and sanitation. ✓ Correct
- D. to construct new roads.
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Rajasthan Urban Sector Development Programme Phase-III, supported by the Asian Development Bank, focuses on improving urban service delivery in water supply, sewerage and sanitation across selected towns of Rajasthan along with institutional strengthening of Urban Local Bodies. It does not principally fund health, school education or new road construction. Hence option (c) is correct.
- Q62
Among the following layers, identify the one which is used for wireless connection in IoT devices:
- A. Application Layer
- B. Perception Layer
- C. Network Layer ✓ Correct
- D. Transport Layer
Answer: C
Show explanation
In the Internet of Things architecture, the Network Layer is responsible for transmitting data collected by the Perception Layer to processing systems, using wired and wireless connectivity such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, Zigbee, LoRaWAN and cellular networks. The Perception Layer hosts sensors, the Application Layer delivers services, and the Transport Layer is a sub-layer related to data transport. Hence option (c) Network Layer is correct.
- Q63
What is the name of the man-portable air defence system developed by 'DRDO' to neutralize aerial threats?
- A. Akash-NG
- B. QRSAM
- C. VL-SRSAM
- D. VSHORADS ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
VSHORADS, the Very Short Range Air Defence System, is a man-portable air defence missile system developed by DRDO to neutralise low-altitude aerial threats such as helicopters, drones and slow-flying aircraft. Akash-NG, QRSAM and VL-SRSAM are also DRDO systems but are not man-portable. Hence option (d) VSHORADS is correct.
- Q64
Which of the following statement is incorrect for Active Electronically Scanned Array Radar (AESA)?
- A. It is not capable of tracking multiple targets. ✓ Correct
- B. The radar features include wide band RF front end.
- C. It is solid-state active phased array fire control radar.
- D. It can be adapted for various types of fighter class of aircraft.
Answer: A
Show explanation
AESA radars are solid-state, active, phased-array fire-control radars with a wide-band RF front end and the ability to track multiple targets simultaneously while engaging several others. They can be adapted for many fighter classes, including LCA Tejas Mk-1A. Statement (a) saying it cannot track multiple targets is therefore incorrect, while the other statements correctly describe AESA capabilities. Hence option (a) is the incorrect statement.
- Q65
The fourth generation biofuels are obtained from genetically modified:
- A. Archaebacteria
- B. Starch yielding crops
- C. Ligno-cellulose yielding crops
- D. Algae ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Generations of biofuels are differentiated by feedstock: first generation uses food crops with starch or sugars, second generation uses lignocellulosic biomass, third generation uses algae, and fourth generation uses genetically modified algae and other engineered photosynthetic microorganisms designed to maximise yield and capture carbon. Hence option (d) Algae (genetically modified) is correct.
- Q66
Regarding Artificial Intelligence (AI), identify the correct statements using the codes given below: A. Machine learning is a subset of AI. B. Supervised learning involves training a computer system without labelled input data. C. Machines learn through trial and error, receiving rewards during reinforcement learning.
- A. Only A and B
- B. Only A and C ✓ Correct
- C. Only B and C
- D. A, B and C all statements are correct.
Answer: B
Show explanation
Statement A is correct: machine learning is indeed a subset of broader computational intelligence. Statement B is incorrect: supervised learning specifically uses labelled input-output data; training without labelled data is unsupervised learning. Statement C is correct: in reinforcement learning, agents learn through trial and error by receiving rewards or penalties from the environment. Hence A and C are correct, matching option (b).
- Q67
Kwashiorkor, a form of malnutrition, is caused by deficiency of which of the following?
- A. Selenium
- B. Protein ✓ Correct
- C. Carbohydrates
- D. Chromium
Answer: B
Show explanation
Kwashiorkor is a severe form of protein-energy malnutrition caused primarily by inadequate dietary protein despite reasonable calorie intake. It typically affects young children weaned onto starchy diets and presents with oedema, growth retardation, fatty liver and dermatitis. Selenium and chromium deficiencies cause different disorders, and carbohydrate inadequacy leads to marasmus rather than kwashiorkor. Hence option (b) Protein is correct.
- Q68
Which of the following artificial sweeteners have the highest sweetness value in comparison to sucrose?
- A. Aspartame
- B. Alitame ✓ Correct
- C. Sucrolose
- D. Saccharin
Answer: B
Show explanation
Among common artificial sweeteners, alitame is approximately 2,000 times sweeter than sucrose, sucralose about 600 times, aspartame about 200 times and saccharin about 300 to 500 times. Therefore alitame has the highest sweetness value relative to sucrose among the listed options. Hence option (b) Alitame is correct.
- Q69
Which of the following is a micro-mineral found in human body fluids/tissues?
- A. Phosphorus
- B. Sulphur
- C. Iodine ✓ Correct
- D. Magnesium
Answer: C
Show explanation
Macro-minerals required by the human body in large amounts include phosphorus, sulphur, magnesium, calcium, sodium, potassium and chloride. Micro-minerals or trace elements are required in small amounts and include iodine, iron, zinc, copper, selenium and manganese. Iodine, essential for thyroid hormone synthesis, is therefore the only micro-mineral in the list. Hence option (c) Iodine is correct.
- Q70
Select the incorrect set of 'the typical Vector - Disease caused - Type of Pathogen'.
- A. Aedes - Chikungunya - Bacteria ✓ Correct
- B. Culex - Lymphatic Filariasis - Parasite
- C. Anopheles - Malaria - Parasite
- D. Aedes - Dengue - Virus
Answer: A
Show explanation
Chikungunya is caused by the Chikungunya virus, transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes; it is not a bacterial disease, so the pairing 'Aedes - Chikungunya - Bacteria' in option (a) is incorrect. Lymphatic filariasis is caused by parasitic worms transmitted by Culex mosquitoes; malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes; dengue is caused by the dengue virus transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes. Hence option (a) is the incorrect set.
- Q71
According to Central Pollution Control Board, the Air Quality category for IND-AQI range of 101-200 is
- A. Good
- B. Satisfactory
- C. Moderate ✓ Correct
- D. Poor
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Central Pollution Control Board's National Air Quality Index categorises air quality as: 0-50 Good, 51-100 Satisfactory, 101-200 Moderate, 201-300 Poor, 301-400 Very Poor, and 401-500 Severe. An IND-AQI value of 101-200 therefore falls in the 'Moderate' category. Hence option (c) Moderate is correct.
- Q72
Select the incorrect statement from the following:
- A. El Nino and La Nina are a kind of storm. ✓ Correct
- B. During El Nino, there are fewer phytoplanktons off the coast.
- C. During La Nina trade winds are stronger than usual.
- D. El Nino & La Nina are the climate patterns.
Answer: A
Show explanation
El Nino and La Nina are large-scale climate patterns characterised by anomalous warming or cooling of sea-surface temperatures in the equatorial Pacific Ocean; they are not storms. During El Nino, upwelling weakens off the South American coast, reducing nutrient supply and phytoplankton; during La Nina, trade winds intensify. Hence statement (a) is incorrect, making it the right answer.
- Q73
India's first Nano-cellulose plant developed by ICAR-CIRCOT Mumbai is related to
- A. Cotton ✓ Correct
- B. Jute
- C. Bamboo
- D. Rice
Answer: A
Show explanation
ICAR's Central Institute for Research on Cotton Technology (ICAR-CIRCOT), Mumbai, established India's first nano-cellulose pilot plant which derives nanocellulose from cotton linters and other cotton-based waste. Although nanocellulose can be produced from many lignocellulosic feedstocks, the CIRCOT facility is specifically related to cotton. Hence option (a) Cotton is correct.
- Q74
Red List of IUCN is known as
- A. Mirror of Life
- B. Life Thermometer
- C. Hydrometer of Earth
- D. Barometer of Life ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, which classifies species into categories ranging from Least Concern to Critically Endangered and Extinct, is widely referred to as the 'Barometer of Life' because it serves as the most authoritative indicator of the state of biodiversity and the changing health of the natural world. Hence option (d) Barometer of Life is correct.
- Q75
Select the incorrect statement regarding the Rajasthan Forestry and Biodiversity Project (Phase-2).
- A. It is assisted by Japanese International Cooperation Agency (JICA).
- B. It covers 18 districts and 8 wild-life sanctuaries. ✓ Correct
- C. Abheda and Machia Biological Parks have been developed under the project.
- D. Water Conservation has also been incorporated in the project.
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q76
Match Column-I (Location of the Center of Excellence) with Column-II (the horticultural crop) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: Column-I: A. Bassi B. Sagra Bhojka C. Devrawas D. Khemri; Column-II: (i) Mango (ii) Custard-apple (iii) Pomegranate (iv) Guava (v) Date-palm
- A. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(v)
- B. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
- C. A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i) ✓ Correct
- D. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(i)
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q77
Which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) under 17 global goals given by United Nations specifically focuses on 'Life on Land', aiming to protect, restore and promote sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems?
- A. SDG 13
- B. SDG 14
- C. SDG 15 ✓ Correct
- D. SDG 16
Answer: C
Show explanation
Among the 17 Sustainable Development Goals adopted by the United Nations in 2015, SDG 13 deals with Climate Action, SDG 14 with Life Below Water, SDG 15 with Life on Land focusing on protecting, restoring and promoting sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, halting deforestation and biodiversity loss, and SDG 16 with Peace, Justice and Strong Institutions. Hence option (c) SDG 15 is correct.
- Q78
'Ganga', India's first cloned cow born in March 2023 belongs to which breed?
- A. Sahiwal
- B. Gir ✓ Correct
- C. Tharparkar
- D. Nagauri
Answer: B
Show explanation
India's first cloned indigenous cattle calf, named Ganga, was born on March 16, 2023 at ICAR-National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal. ICAR-NDRI's Annual Report identifies Ganga as India's first cloned indigenous cow of the Gir breed. Hence option (b) Gir is correct.
- Q79
In the question given below, statement and two assumptions (I) and (II) are given. Choose the correct option from the following: Statement: In order to replenish the nutrients in the soil, it is important to grow different types of crops in every alternate season. Assumptions: (I) A crop can never be grown for the second time in the same field. (II) If a different crop is grown in the successive season, no additional nutrients such as fertilizers are required to be added to the soil at all.
- A. Only assumption (I) is implicit.
- B. Only assumption (II) is implicit.
- C. Both assumptions (I) and (II) are implicit.
- D. Neither assumption (I) nor assumption (II) is implicit. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Assumption (I) is too extreme: the statement only urges crop rotation each season, not that a crop can never be repeated. Assumption (II) is also unwarranted: the statement does not claim that fertilisers become entirely unnecessary if rotation is followed. Both assumptions overstate the original message, so neither is implicit. Hence option (d) Neither (I) nor (II) is implicit is correct.
- Q80
Which of the following village of Rajasthan is transforming itself to a zero-waste model with the help of Green Technology intervention?
- A. Menar
- B. Devmali
- C. Naurangabad
- D. Aandhi ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q81
In the question given below, three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (I) and (II). You have to take the given statements to be true. Read the conclusions and given the answer. Statements: Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics. No graphic is a picture. Conclusions: (I) Some graphics are figures. (II) Some symbols are pictures.
- A. Neither Conclusion (I) nor Conclusion (II) follows.
- B. Both Conclusion (I) and (II) follow.
- C. Only Conclusion (I) follows. ✓ Correct
- D. Only Conclusion (II) follows.
Answer: C
Show explanation
From 'All symbols are graphics' and 'Some symbols are figures', it follows that some graphics are figures (by conversion of the particular affirmative through the symbols), so Conclusion (I) follows. Since 'No graphic is a picture' and all symbols are graphics, no symbol can be a picture, hence 'Some symbols are pictures' contradicts the premises and Conclusion (II) does not follow. Therefore only Conclusion (I) follows, matching option (c).
- Q82
A statement is followed by two arguments (I) and (II). Choose which of the argument(s) is/are strong. Statement: Should every house use solar energy in order to reduce the need of electricity in Rajasthan? Arguments: (I) Yes, it will conserve our natural resources and it will promote environmental compatibility. (II) No, solar panels are costly and all the house owners cannot afford it without subsidy.
- A. Only argument (I) is strong. ✓ Correct
- B. Only argument (II) is strong.
- C. Both of the arguments are strong.
- D. Neither argument (I) nor argument (II) is strong.
Answer: A
Show explanation
Argument (I) is strong because using solar energy genuinely conserves non-renewable resources and supports environmental sustainability, which is a substantive policy reason. Argument (II) is weak because cost is a temporary, externally addressable barrier (subsidies, falling panel costs) and does not reject the principle of universal solar adoption. Hence only argument (I) is strong, matching option (a).
- Q83
Eight equidistant points lie on a circle. Using these points as vertices, right angled triangles are drawn such that one side of each triangle is diameter of the circle. The number of such possible right angled triangles is:
- A. 8
- B. 16
- C. 20
- D. 24 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
By Thales' theorem, any triangle inscribed in a circle with one side as the diameter has a right angle at the vertex opposite the diameter. With 8 equidistant points, the number of diameters is 8/2 = 4 (each diameter joining a pair of diametrically opposite points). For each diameter, the third vertex can be any of the remaining 6 points, giving 4 x 6 = 24 right-angled triangles. Hence option (d) 24 is correct.
- Q84
Next term in the following sequence is: 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ?
- A. 210
- B. 252 ✓ Correct
- C. 258
- D. 270
Answer: B
Show explanation
The sequence is generated by the formula n^2 (n+1) for n = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, giving 1*2=2, 4*3=12, 9*4=36, 16*5=80, 25*6=150. The next term corresponds to n = 6, that is 6^2 * 7 = 36 * 7 = 252. Hence option (b) 252 is correct.
- Q85
In a coding system, 'PROJECT' is written as 'CEOPRT' and 'PLANE' is written as 'ELNP'. Then, in the same coding system the 'ORGANISED' will be written as:
- A. ADEGIOSR
- B. ADEGIROS
- C. ADEGIOIRS
- D. ADEGIORS ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The coding rule selects letters of the input word that occur after the alphabetic position 'M' (i.e., letters from N to Z) and writes them in alphabetical order. For PROJECT, the letters after M are P, R, O, T (and C and E are kept as well in the cited code), giving CEOPRT. For PLANE, applying the rule yields ELNP. Applying the same rule to ORGANISED yields A, D, E, G, I, O, R, S, that is ADEGIORS. Hence option (d) ADEGIORS is correct.
- Q86
In the question given below, a statement is followed by two courses of action numbered (I) and (II). Choose the correct option from the following: Statement: There has been less voting in this Lok Sabha election as compared to previous Lok Sabha election. Course of action: (I) The election commission should announce re-election for Lok Sabha. (II) Election commission should cancel the voting rights of the people who did not vote in this Lok Sabha election.
- A. Only (I) follows.
- B. Only (II) follows.
- C. Neither (I) nor (II) follows. ✓ Correct
- D. Both (I) and (II) follow.
Answer: C
Show explanation
A modest decline in voter turnout does not justify ordering re-elections or cancelling voting rights of non-voters; voting in India is voluntary, and re-election or disenfranchisement are disproportionate, legally untenable responses. Hence neither course of action follows, matching option (c).
- Q87
Mr. X starts walking towards south from point A. After walking 20 m., he reaches at point B. Now he turns left and walks 20 m and reaches at point C. Now he turns 45 anticlockwise, walks a distance 20 sqrt(3) m and reaches at the point D. What is the shortest distance between point A and point D?
- A. 20 sqrt(3) m
- B. 40 m
- C. 20 sqrt(5) m ✓ Correct
- D. 40 sqrt(3) m
Answer: C
Show explanation
Set A as origin with south taken along negative y. After walking 20 m south, B is at (0, -20). Turning left (east) and walking 20 m, C is at (20, -20). At C he turns 45 degrees anticlockwise (so direction shifts from east to north-east) and walks 20 sqrt 3 m, giving displacement (20 sqrt 3 / sqrt 2, 20 sqrt 3 / sqrt 2) ~ (24.49, 24.49). D is at (44.49, 4.49). Distance AD = sqrt(44.49^2 + 4.49^2) ~ sqrt(1979 + 20) ~ sqrt(2000) = 20 sqrt 5 m. Hence option (c) is correct.
- Q88
A Venn diagram is drawn followed by the four choices. Select the correct choice which represents the given diagram.
- A. Teacher, Mother, Doctor
- B. Universe, Planets, Stars ✓ Correct
- C. Income Tax, Sales Tax, Service Tax
- D. Library, Books, Furniture
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q89
Images of consonants of the English alphabet (capitals) are observed in a mirror. What is the number of images which do not look like their original shapes?
- A. 13
- B. 14 ✓ Correct
- C. 15
- D. 16
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q90
A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family. B is married to C. F is the mother of E and D is the daughter of F. A's daughter is E and C's son is A. There are two married couples in the family. Which of the following is correct?
- A. B is grandfather of E.
- B. C is mother of A.
- C. C is grandmother of D.
- D. E is granddaughter of C. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
From the clues: A's daughter is E, and C's son is A; F is mother of E and D is daughter of F; B is married to C. So A is the son of B and C, and A is the parent of E and D along with F (A married to F). Hence E is the daughter of A and granddaughter of B and C. Statement (d) E is granddaughter of C is correct. (a) is wrong because B is grandmother (B is female if C is male; the family has two married couples B-C and A-F). Hence option (d) is correct.
- Q91
A housewife has 1000 ml of mixture that contains milk and water in the ratio of 3:1. She adds 250 ml of mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3:2 to it. Then she uses 250 ml of the combined mixture to make curd. How much of pure milk is left in the mixture remained?
- A. 1000 ml
- B. 912 ml
- C. 750 ml
- D. 720 ml ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Initial mixture: 1000 ml with milk:water 3:1, so milk = 750 ml, water = 250 ml. Add 250 ml with milk:water 3:2, so milk added = 150 ml, water added = 100 ml. Total mixture = 1250 ml; milk = 900 ml, water = 350 ml. After removing 250 ml of this mixture (containing 250 * 900/1250 = 180 ml milk and 70 ml water), milk left = 900 - 180 = 720 ml. Hence option (d) 720 ml is correct.
- Q92
A reduction of 21% in the price of rice enables a person to buy 10.5 kg more for Rs. 1,000. What is the reduced price of rice per kg?
- A. Rs. 20 ✓ Correct
- B. Rs. 30
- C. Rs. 40
- D. Rs. 15
Answer: A
Show explanation
Let original price be P per kg. After a 21 percent reduction the new price is 0.79 P. The extra quantity bought for Rs 1000 is 1000/0.79P - 1000/P = 10.5. Simplifying: 1000 (1/0.79 - 1)/P = 10.5; so 1000 * 0.21/0.79 / P = 10.5; P = 1000*0.21/(0.79*10.5) = 210/8.295 ~ 25.31. Reduced price = 0.79 * 25.31 ~ 20. Hence option (a) Rs 20 is correct.
- Q93 · Reasoning & Mental Ability
The simple interest on a sum of Rs. 8,000 at a certain rate percent per annum for 3 years is Rs. 3,600. If the interest is compounded 8-monthly on the same sum at the same interest rate, then total compound interest after 2 years will be
- A. Rs. 10,248
- B. Rs. 10,648
- C. Rs. 2,248
- D. Rs. 2,648 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
SI = P × R × T / 100 = 5000 × 8 × 3 / 100 = 1,20,000/100 = ₹1,200.
- Q94
The sides of a triangle are 5, 12 and 13 units. A rectangle is constructed, which is equal in area to the triangle. It has a width of 10 units, then the perimeter of this rectangle is:
- A. 30 units
- B. 26 units ✓ Correct
- C. 13 units
- D. 40 units
Answer: B
Show explanation
The triangle with sides 5, 12, 13 is right-angled (5^2 + 12^2 = 169 = 13^2), so its area is (1/2) * 5 * 12 = 30 square units. A rectangle of equal area with width 10 has length 30/10 = 3 units. Its perimeter is 2 * (10 + 3) = 26 units. Hence option (b) 26 units is correct.
- Q95 · Reasoning & Mental Ability
How many triangles are there in the following figure?
- A. 12
- B. 14
- C. 16 ✓ Correct
- D. 18
Answer: C
Show explanation
The official RPSC final answer key marks Q95 as response 3. In the stored option order, response 3 is 16, so option C is correct; the previous square-with-diagonals explanation belonged to a different figure and should not be used for this item.
- Q96
The mean of 100 observations was calculated as 49. It was later discovered that three observations taken as 40, 20, 50 were actually 60, 70, 80 respectively. The correct mean is
- A. 48
- B. 49.33
- C. 50 ✓ Correct
- D. 49.5
Answer: C
Show explanation
Original sum of 100 observations = 100 * 49 = 4,900. Incorrectly recorded values were 40, 20 and 50 (sum 110); the correct values are 60, 70 and 80 (sum 210). Adjusted total = 4,900 - 110 + 210 = 5,000. Correct mean = 5,000/100 = 50. Hence option (c) 50 is correct.
- Q97
Ten different letters of alphabets are given. Words with five letters are formed from these given letters. Then, the number of words which have at least one repeated letter is:
- A. 69760 ✓ Correct
- B. 30240
- C. 99748
- D. 99784
Answer: A
Show explanation
From 10 different letters, the total number of 5-letter words allowing repetition is 10^5 = 100,000. Words with all letters distinct = 10 * 9 * 8 * 7 * 6 = 30,240. Words with at least one repeated letter = 100,000 - 30,240 = 69,760. Hence option (a) 69760 is correct.
- Q98
The probability of getting the sum as a prime number, when two dice are thrown together, is:
- A. 1/2
- B. 1/3
- C. 5/12 ✓ Correct
- D. 7/12
Answer: C
Show explanation
When two dice are thrown, there are 36 equally likely outcomes. Sums that are prime are 2, 3, 5, 7 and 11. The number of ways to obtain these sums are 1 (for 2), 2 (for 3), 4 (for 5), 6 (for 7) and 2 (for 11), totalling 15. Probability = 15/36 = 5/12. Hence option (c) 5/12 is correct.
- Q99
Recently which app is launched by Jaipur Municipal Corporation, Heritage for citizens to report civic issues and government to analyze, track, manage & solve?
- A. Jaipur 300
- B. Jaipur 301
- C. Jaipur 311 ✓ Correct
- D. Jaipur 315
Answer: C
Show explanation
Jaipur Municipal Corporation, Heritage launched the 'Jaipur 311' mobile application, modelled on the 311 civic-issue reporting concept used internationally. Through the app, citizens can lodge complaints related to sanitation, streetlights, encroachment and other civic services, while officials can analyse, track, manage and resolve them. Hence option (c) Jaipur 311 is correct.
- Q100
The pie-chart provided below gives the distribution of land areas used for various food crops: Wheat 72 degrees, Rice 82 degrees, Other Crops 90 degrees, Maize 45 degrees, Bajra 15 degrees, Sorghum 27 degrees, Barley 26 degrees. Choose the correct option from the following which uses more than 50% of the total area.
- A. Wheat, Barley and Sorghum
- B. Rice, Wheat and Sorghum ✓ Correct
- C. Rice, Maize and Barley
- D. Bajra, Maize and Rice
Answer: B
Show explanation
Total of all sectors equals 360 degrees. 50 percent of 360 is 180 degrees. Rice 82 + Wheat 72 + Sorghum 27 = 181 degrees, which exceeds 180 degrees. Other combinations: Wheat + Barley + Sorghum = 72 + 26 + 27 = 125; Rice + Maize + Barley = 82 + 45 + 26 = 153; Bajra + Maize + Rice = 15 + 45 + 82 = 142. Only option (b) Rice, Wheat and Sorghum exceeds 50 percent. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Q101
Which one of the following statement is NOT correct regarding the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly by-election - 2024?
- A. Minimum turnout (in percent) in by-election took place in Dausa.
- B. Out of 7 in 3 assembly constituencies, the voting percentage of women was more than that of men.
- C. 3127 voters voted through home voting.
- D. Maximum ballot papers for service employed voters were issued in Khinvsar assembly constituency. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q102
Choose the correct statement with regards to Guru Ghasidas - Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve.
- A. It is situated in Madhya Pradesh.
- B. It is notified as 54th Tiger Reserve of India in November 2024.
- C. It is spread over 1829 sq. kms.
- D. It is the third largest tiger reserve in the country. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q103
Which of the following Institution has been engaged by the Competition Commission of India in 2024, to conduct a market study on Artificial Intelligence and Competition?
- A. Indian School of Business
- B. Management Development Institute Society ✓ Correct
- C. Institute of Rural Management, Anand
- D. IIM, Indore
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q104
The 'Rajasthan MSME Policy - 2024' will remain in force until which of the following date?
- A. 31 March, 2028
- B. 31 March, 2030
- C. 31 March, 2029 ✓ Correct
- D. 31 March, 2031
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q105
Recently Yamandu Orsi has been elected as the President of which country?
- A. Paraguay
- B. Uruguay ✓ Correct
- C. Venezuela
- D. Guyana
Answer: B
Show explanation
Yamandu Orsi of the Frente Amplio coalition won the November 2024 presidential run-off in Uruguay, defeating Alvaro Delgado of the ruling National Party. He assumed office in March 2025. Paraguay, Venezuela and Guyana had different presidents during this period. Hence option (b) Uruguay is correct.
- Q106
The Submarine Cable Resilience Summit in February, 2025 will be held at:
- A. Switzerland
- B. Nigeria ✓ Correct
- C. France
- D. Armenia
Answer: B
Show explanation
The first International Submarine Cable Resilience Summit was scheduled to be held in February 2025 in Abuja, Nigeria, organised by the International Telecommunication Union and the International Cable Protection Committee. Hence option (b) Nigeria is correct.
- Q107
Name the writer from South Korea who has won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2024?
- A. Nihon Hidankyo
- B. David Baker
- C. Annie Ernauxe
- D. Han Kang ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
South Korean writer Han Kang was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature 2024 for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas and exposes the fragility of human life. Nihon Hidankyo received the Peace Prize, David Baker shared the Chemistry Prize, and Annie Ernaux had won the Literature Prize earlier in 2022. Hence option (d) Han Kang is correct.
- Q108
Match the Column I and II regarding National awards for the empowerment of persons with disabilities 2024: Column-I (Sarvshreshth Divyangjan): (a) Ananya Bijesh (b) Prateek Khandelwal (c) Priyanka Deepak Dabade; Column-II (Field of outstanding work): (i) Art and Culture (ii) Music (iii) Accessibility
- A. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
- B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
- C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii)
- D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q109
Recently the Government of India has approved inclusion of some of the languages in the list of classical languages. Now, how many languages in total are having the status of classical languages?
- A. 6
- B. 8
- C. 10
- D. 11 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
In October 2024 the Union Cabinet approved the inclusion of Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali in the list of classical languages, in addition to the earlier six (Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia), taking the total to 11 classical languages of India. Hence option (d) 11 is correct.
- Q110
The I Edition of Joint Table Top Exercise (CINBAX) between the Indian Army and the Cambodian Army was held at:
- A. Mumbai
- B. Pune ✓ Correct
- C. Jodhpur
- D. Bhubaneswar
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q111
Where was the India - Norway business round table held on 8th December, 2024?
- A. Jaipur
- B. New Delhi
- C. Chennai
- D. Mumbai ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The India-Norway Business Round Table was held on 8 December 2024 in New Delhi as part of Norwegian Crown Prince Haakon's official visit to India. The event focused on cooperation in renewable energy, maritime sector, blue economy and digitalisation. Hence option (b) New Delhi is correct.
- Q112
Which organization has recently launched an upgraded Mobile App 'Suvidha 2.0'?
- A. Election Commission of India ✓ Correct
- B. Supreme Court of India
- C. Central Bureau of Investigation
- D. Ministry of Aayush
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Election Commission of India launched the upgraded Suvidha 2.0 mobile application to facilitate election-related permission requests and approvals from candidates and political parties through a single online window for activities such as rallies, vehicle movement and temporary offices during elections. Hence option (a) Election Commission of India is correct.
- Q113
Consider the following statements about recently inaugurated Asia's largest and world's highest imaging Cherenkov Observatory, at Hanle, Ladakh: I. It was inaugurated by Ajit Kumar Mohanty, Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission. II. It is located at an altitude of 5100 metres. III. The telescope is built by Bhabha Atomic Research Centre with the support of Electronic Corporation of India and other industry partners. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- A. Only I and II are correct.
- B. I, II and III are correct.
- C. Only I and III are correct. ✓ Correct
- D. Only II and III are correct.
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q114
Who among the following from India, co-chaired with Mr. Atsushi Mimura, at the 2nd India - Japan Finance Dialogue held at Tokyo in September, 2024?
- A. Tuhinkanta Pandey
- B. Dammu Ravi
- C. Ajay Seth ✓ Correct
- D. Vikram Misri
Answer: C
Show explanation
The 2nd India-Japan Finance Dialogue was held in Tokyo in September 2024. The Indian side was led by Shri Ajay Seth, Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, who co-chaired the dialogue with Mr. Atsushi Mimura, Vice Minister of Finance for International Affairs of Japan. Hence option (c) Ajay Seth is correct.
- Q115
Khelo India Youth Games 2025 will be hosted by which of the following state?
- A. Rajasthan
- B. Bihar ✓ Correct
- C. Tamil Nadu
- D. Madhya Pradesh
Answer: B
Show explanation
Khelo India Youth Games 2025 are being hosted by Bihar, marking the first time the state will host this multi-disciplinary national-level youth sporting event. It was announced by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports in 2024. Hence option (b) Bihar is correct.
- Q116
How many medals did India win at the 2024 ISSF (International Shooting Sport Federation) World Cup in shooting?
- A. 2
- B. 3
- C. 4 ✓ Correct
- D. 5
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q117
Consider the following statements regarding to 38th National Games 2025 and choose the correct option: Statement (A): It will be hosted by Uttarakhand. Statement (B): The National Games will feature 28 sporting disciplines and 4 demonstration events.
- A. Both Statements (A) and (B) are correct.
- B. Only Statement (A) is correct.
- C. Only Statement (B) is correct.
- D. Both Statements (A) and (B) are incorrect.
Explanation coming soon.
- Q118
How many gold and bronze medals has Rajasthan won in 5th National Para Shooting Championship held at Pune in November 2024?
- A. 16 gold and 11 bronze
- B. 11 gold and 7 bronze
- C. 16 gold and 7 bronze ✓ Correct
- D. 11 gold and 16 bronze
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q119
'Divith Reddy Adulla' winner of World Cadet Under-8 Championship 2024 is related to which game?
- A. Swimming
- B. Chess ✓ Correct
- C. Table Tennis
- D. Gymnastics
Answer: B
Show explanation
Divith Reddy Adulla from Telangana won the World Cadet Under-8 Chess Championship 2024 held in Montesilvano, Italy, scoring nine wins out of nine and emerging as world champion in the open under-8 category. Hence option (b) Chess is correct.
- Q120
Which of the following archaeological sites was identified by archaeologist T.H. Handley as a Buddhist town?
- A. Bhandarej
- B. Budha Pushkar
- C. Bairath
- D. Naliasar
Explanation coming soon.
- Q121
Consider the following statements about Rao Chunda of Marwar and choose the correct option from below: A. Rao Chunda obtained Mandore in dowry. B. Rao Ranmal ascended the throne immediately after Rao Chunda's death.
- A. Only A is true. ✓ Correct
- B. Only B is true.
- C. A and B both are true.
- D. A and B both are false.
Answer: A
Show explanation
Statement A is true: Rao Chunda of Marwar received Mandore in dowry around 1395 from the Inda chieftain when he married the Inda princess, marking the start of Rathor rule there. Statement B is incorrect: after Rao Chunda's death in 1423, his son Ranmal did not ascend the throne immediately; he was overlooked initially in favour of Rao Kanha, and only later established control. Hence only A is true, matching option (a).
- Q122
According to 'Rao-Jetsi-Ro-Chhanda', who among the following was defeated by Rao Jaitsi, the ruler of Bikaner?
- A. Humayun
- B. Kamran ✓ Correct
- C. Shershah
- D. Akbar
Answer: B
Show explanation
According to the chronicle 'Rao Jaitsi-ro-Chhand' composed by Bithu Suja, Rao Jaitsi of Bikaner defeated Mughal prince Kamran, the brother of Humayun, when Kamran attacked Bikaner in 1534. The text glorifies Jaitsi's victory over Kamran's forces. Hence option (b) Kamran is correct.
- Q123
Which of the following was/were associated in the excavation of Ojiyana? A. R.C. Agrawal B. B.R. Meena C. Alok Tripathi
- A. Only A
- B. Only C
- C. A and B
- D. B and C ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q124
Consider the following statements related to Bijolia Peasant Movement: A. Vijay Singh Pathik had gone to Wardha to meet Gandhiji to give information regarding the Bijolia Peasant Movement. B. Prayag's Abhyudaya and Calcutta's Bharat Mitra newspaper regularly published news related to the Bijolia Peasant Movement. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A. Only A is correct.
- B. Only B is correct. ✓ Correct
- C. Both A and B are correct.
- D. Neither A nor B is correct.
Answer: B
Show explanation
The official RPSC final answer key for the 2024 Prelims gives Q124 as response 2. In this row's stored option order, response 2 corresponds to 'Only B is correct.' Therefore statement B about Abhyudaya and Bharat Mitra is accepted, while statement A is not accepted; option B is correct.
- Q125
The S.A. Sudhalkar report of 1945 is associated with which of the following Princely State?
- A. Jodhpur ✓ Correct
- B. Bikaner
- C. Udaipur
- D. Jaipur
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q126
Which of the following statements is not true regarding Walterkrit Rajput Hitkarini Sabha?
- A. It was established in the year 1888, by the efforts of colonel C.K.M. Walter.
- B. It was aimed to make reforms for Rajputs and Dalits of Rajasthan. ✓ Correct
- C. Its first meeting was organized at Ajmer.
- D. The Sabha made social regulations to achieve its aims.
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Walterkrit Rajput Hitkarini Sabha was established in 1888 at Ajmer at the initiative of Colonel C.K.M. Walter, the Agent to the Governor-General. Its objective was to bring about social reforms among Rajputs in matters such as polygamy, child marriage, dowry and excessive marriage expenses. It did not aim to reform Dalits of Rajasthan, so statement (b) is not true. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Q127
The famous temple built by Mathandev at Rajorgarh was dedicated to which of the following deities?
- A. Shiva ✓ Correct
- B. Vishnu
- C. Surya
- D. Mahishasur Mardini
Answer: A
Show explanation
The official RPSC final answer key for Q127 marks response 1. In the stored option order, response 1 is Shiva, so the famous temple built by Mathandev at Rajorgarh is treated as dedicated to Shiva for this question. Hence option (a), Shiva, is correct.
- Q128
Consider the following statements about the folk instrument 'Chautara' and choose the correct option from below: A. It is a four stringed instrument. B. It is generally used in singing bhajans of Ramdev ji.
- A. Only A is true.
- B. Only B is true.
- C. A and B both are true. ✓ Correct
- D. A and B both are false.
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q129
Which of the following options is not rightly matched?
- A. Prithvi Raj Raso - Chandarbardai
- B. Bisaldev Raso - Narpati
- C. Khuman Raso - Karnidan ✓ Correct
- D. Shatrusal Raso - Dungarsingh
Answer: C
Show explanation
Prithvi Raj Raso was composed by Chandbardai; Bisaldev Raso was composed by Narpati Nalha; Khuman Raso was composed by Dalpat Vijay (and continued by later poets), not Karnidan; Shatrusal Raso was composed by Dungar Singh. Therefore the pairing 'Khuman Raso - Karnidan' is incorrect. Hence option (c) is the wrong match.
- Q130
Match List-I with List-II regarding famous painting styles and their painters of Rajasthan and select the correct option: List-I: A. Kishangarh B. Bikaner C. Mewar D. Marwar; List-II: i. Sahibdeen ii. Nihalchand iii. Ali Raza iv. Shivdas
- A. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
- B. A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv ✓ Correct
- C. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
- D. A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Kishangarh painting style is associated with Nihalchand (famous for Bani Thani); the Bikaner style is associated with Ali Raza; the Mewar style includes major painters like Sahibdeen; and the Marwar style is associated with Shivdas. The matching A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv corresponds to option (b).
- Q131
Consider the following statements about Saint Laldas and choose the correct option from below: A. Saint Laldas remained unmarried throughout his life. B. After the death of Saint Laldas, a temple was built at his Samadhi place.
- A. Only A is true.
- B. Only B is true.
- C. A and B both are true. ✓ Correct
- D. A and B both are false.
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q132
Which of the following colours is 'Kasumal', which is used in the costumes of Rajasthan?
- A. Red ✓ Correct
- B. Yellow
- C. Pink
- D. Saffron
Answer: A
Show explanation
In Rajasthani textile tradition, 'Kasumal' refers to a deep red colour obtained from kusum (safflower) dye and is used in bridal odhnis and traditional costumes, especially in Marwar and Mewar. It is associated with auspicious occasions such as marriage. Hence option (a) Red is correct.
- Q133
Consider the following statements about Matsya Union's Prime Minister Shobaram and choose the correct option from below: A. He left his legal profession during the Non-Cooperation Movement. B. He was the member of the Cabinet of Heeralal Shastri.
- A. Only A is true.
- B. Only B is true.
- C. A and B both are true. ✓ Correct
- D. A and B both are false.
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q134
For which of the following the words Aadi, Hiyali are popular in Rajasthani language?
- A. Idioms
- B. Proverb
- C. Phad
- D. Riddles ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
In Rajasthani folk literature, 'Aadi' and 'Hiyali' are popular forms of riddles, where the speaker poses a puzzling description in verse and the listener has to guess the answer. They are part of the oral tradition and used in both entertainment and didactic contexts. Hence option (d) Riddles is correct.
- Q135
Which of the following titles was adopted by the Kadphises Second of Kushan dynasty?
- A. Sakari
- B. Sarvalokeshwar ✓ Correct
- C. Mahakshatrap
- D. Singh Chandra
Answer: B
Show explanation
Vima Kadphises, also known as Kadphises II of the Kushan dynasty (late 1st century), assumed the imperial title 'Maheshwara' as well as 'Sarvalokeshwara' (Lord of all Worlds) on his coins, reflecting his Shaivite leanings and universal sovereignty claims. The other titles such as Sakari, Mahakshatrap and Singh Chandra are associated with different rulers or dynasties. Hence option (b) Sarvalokeshwar is correct.
- Q136
Consider the following statements about Stupas and choose the correct option from below: A. The word 'Stupa' is an architectural term and means something which is raised up by accumulation. B. The custom of erecting 'Stupas' as a form of memorial to the dead was pre-Buddhist.
- A. Only A is true.
- B. Only B is true.
- C. A and B both are true. ✓ Correct
- D. A and B both are false.
Answer: C
Show explanation
Both statements are true: the Sanskrit word 'stupa' literally derives from 'stup', meaning to heap up, and refers to a raised mound; and the practice of erecting tumuli or earthen mounds over the relics of the dead pre-dates Buddhism, occurring in Vedic and other ancient cultures, before being formally adopted in Buddhism for relics of the Buddha and venerated monks. Hence option (c) Both A and B are true is correct.
- Q137
Which of the following Buddhist texts were written in Sanskrit language? Choose the correct option from below: A. Divyavadan B. Deepvansha C. Mahavansha D. Aryamanjushree Moolkalp
- A. A, B
- B. B, C
- C. A, D ✓ Correct
- D. A, C
Answer: C
Show explanation
Among the options, Divyavadana (a collection of Buddhist legends) and Aryamanjushri Mulakalpa are both Mahayana Buddhist texts composed in Sanskrit. Deepvansha and Mahavansha are Pali chronicles of Sri Lanka. Hence A and D are written in Sanskrit, matching option (c).
- Q138
Consider the following statements related to Aajivaka Sect: A. Belief in Determinism B. The order of reincarnation can be changed. C. Belief in Austerity Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A. Only A is correct.
- B. Only B is correct.
- C. A and B are correct.
- D. A and C are correct. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Ajivika sect founded by Makkhali Gosala believed in strict determinism (niyati) and held austerity (tapa) in high regard. They denied free will and rejected the idea that the order of reincarnation could be altered through karma or effort. Hence statements A and C are correct while B is incorrect, matching option (d).
- Q139
Which of the following monuments were built by Emperor Shershah? A. Sasaram Tomb B. Kila-E-Kuhn Mosque C. Tomb of Sikandara D. Jama Masjid
- A. A, B ✓ Correct
- B. A, C
- C. A, D
- D. B, D
Answer: A
Show explanation
Sher Shah Suri's principal monuments include his own magnificent tomb at Sasaram in Bihar and the Qila-i-Kuhna Masjid inside the Purana Qila at Delhi, both built in the Indo-Islamic Lodi-Suri style. Akbar’s Tomb at Sikandra is a Mughal monument and was not built by Sher Shah Suri, and the Jama Masjid of Delhi was built later by Shah Jahan. Hence A and B are correct, matching option (a).
- Q140
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Bhakti Movement?
- A. Vallabhacharya established Pushtimarga.
- B. Nimbarka propounded the Philosophy of Dvaitadvait.
- C. Madhvacharya propounded Nirguna Bhakti Siddhant instead of Saguna Bhakti. ✓ Correct
- D. Ramananda advocated Rama Bhakti.
Answer: C
Show explanation
Vallabhacharya founded Pushtimarga, a Saguna devotional sect dedicated to Krishna; Nimbarka propounded the philosophy of Dvaitadvaita; Ramananda emphasised Rama bhakti and welcomed disciples across castes. Madhvacharya, however, propounded Dvaita (dualism) and Saguna bhakti, not Nirguna bhakti, so statement (c) is incorrect. Hence option (c) is the wrong statement.
- Q141
Who painted the famous image of Bharat Mata to visually associate the identity of India, as a Nation?
- A. Gagnendranath
- B. Abnindranath ✓ Correct
- C. Bankim Chandra
- D. Rabindranath Tagore
Answer: B
Show explanation
The iconic image of Bharat Mata, depicted as a saffron-clad ascetic woman holding manuscripts, sheaves of paddy, a rosary and a piece of white cloth, was painted by Abanindranath Tagore in 1905. The painting visually crystallised the idea of India as a nation during the Swadeshi movement. Hence option (b) Abanindranath is correct.
- Q142
In which language did the poet Mallanarya write the texts named 'Bhava Chinta Ratna' and 'Veerasaivamrita' in the court of Krishandev Ray?
- A. Sanskrit
- B. Tamil
- C. Telugu
- D. Kannada ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Mallanarya, a Veerashaiva poet associated with the court of Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagara, composed 'Bhava Chinta Ratna' and 'Veerasaivamrita' in Kannada, contributing significantly to Kannada Veerashaiva literature. Hence option (d) Kannada is correct.
- Q143
Who among the following was appointed as the chairman of Secondary Education Commission by Government of India in 1952?
- A. S. Radhakrishnan
- B. D.S. Kothari
- C. P.C. Mahalanobis
- D. Laxman Swami Mudaliar ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Government of India in 1952 appointed the Secondary Education Commission under the chairmanship of Dr. A. Lakshmanaswami Mudaliar, then Vice-Chancellor of the University of Madras. The Commission submitted its report in 1953 with recommendations on multipurpose schools, three-language formula and revision of the secondary curriculum. Hence option (d) Laxman Swami Mudaliar is correct.
- Q144
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below: List-I (Desert): A. Gobi B. Patagonia C. Victoria D. Kalahari; List-II (Location): i. Southern Africa ii. Asia iii. South America iv. Australia
- A. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i ✓ Correct
- B. A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
- C. A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
- D. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Gobi Desert lies in Asia (Mongolia and northern China); the Patagonian Desert lies in South America (southern Argentina and Chile); the Victoria (Great Victoria) Desert lies in Australia; and the Kalahari Desert lies in southern Africa (Botswana, Namibia, South Africa). The matching A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i corresponds to option (a).
- Q145
Which is not an area of Mediterranean type of Agriculture?
- A. California
- B. Central Chile
- C. Northern Australia ✓ Correct
- D. Southern part of South Africa
Answer: C
Show explanation
Mediterranean-type agriculture, characterised by mild wet winters and hot dry summers and the cultivation of citrus fruits, olives, grapes and wheat, is found in California, central Chile, the Mediterranean Basin, the southern part of South Africa (Cape region) and southern and south-western Australia. Northern Australia has a tropical monsoon climate, not a Mediterranean type. Hence option (c) Northern Australia is correct.
- Q146
Read the following statements related to the liberal phase of Indian National Movement (1885 - 1905 A.D.): A. Supported the rich democratic and scientific culture of modern Europe. B. Strongly criticized the Economic aspect of British imperialism. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A. Only A is true.
- B. Only B is true.
- C. Both A and B are true. ✓ Correct
- D. Neither A nor B is true.
Answer: C
Show explanation
The liberal phase of the Indian National Movement (1885-1905), led by Moderates such as Dadabhai Naoroji, Gokhale and Surendranath Banerjee, drew inspiration from European liberal democratic and scientific ideals while simultaneously offering a sharp critique of the economic exploitation by the British, articulated through Naoroji's 'Drain Theory'. Hence both A and B are true, matching option (c).
- Q147
What is the correct order of the following mountain ranges from North to South? A. Ladakh B. Shiwalik C. Karakoram D. Zaskar
- A. A, C, B, D
- B. D, C, A, B
- C. C, A, D, B ✓ Correct
- D. C, B, A, D
Answer: C
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Moving from north to south within the Himalayan ranges, the order is Karakoram (northernmost, beyond the Indus), Ladakh range, Zaskar range and finally the Shiwalik (outermost southern foothills). Hence the correct order is C, A, D, B, matching option (c).
- Q148
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
- A. The variability of rainfall at Chennai is more than that of Mumbai.
- B. The retreating monsoon causes some rains in the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu.
- C. The western disturbances originate from the Mediterranean Sea.
- D. The Monsoon Expedition (Monex) was organized under the joint auspices of the United States of America (U.S.A.) and India. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Statement (a) is correct: rainfall variability at Chennai is higher than at Mumbai, since Mumbai receives reliable south-west monsoon rainfall. (b) is correct: the retreating monsoon brings rain to Tamil Nadu's coast in October-December. (c) is correct: western disturbances originate over the Mediterranean. Statement (d) is incorrect because the Monsoon Experiment (MONEX) of 1979 was an international programme conducted under WMO and ICSU/Global Atmospheric Research Programme, not jointly by the USA and India. Hence option (d) is correct.
- Q149
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (Tributary): A. Rapti B. Tista C. Hiran D. Purna; List-II (River): i. Brahmaputra ii. Narmada iii. Godavari iv. Ghaghra
- A. A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
- B. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
- C. A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
- D. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Rapti is a tributary of the Ghaghra; Tista is a tributary of the Brahmaputra; Hiran is a tributary of the Narmada; Purna is a tributary of the Godavari (and also of the Tapi, but here it pairs with Godavari among given options). Therefore A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii corresponds to option (d).
- Q150
In which forest zone of the world highest deforestation has been recorded?
- A. Coniferous
- B. Tropical ✓ Correct
- C. Savana Deciduous
- D. Tidal
Answer: B
Show explanation
Tropical forests, particularly the Amazon, Congo and South-east Asian rainforests, have recorded the highest rates of deforestation globally because of large-scale clearance for agriculture, plantations, logging and infrastructure. Coniferous, savanna deciduous and tidal forests have experienced lower absolute deforestation rates. Hence option (b) Tropical is correct.