RAS 2023 Prelims — Previous Year Questions with Answers
150 questions with answer keys and explanations.
- Q1
The East-West Corridor connect ________ to ________.
- A. Imphal to Ahmedabad
- B. Dimapur to Vadodara
- C. Silchar to Porbandar ✓ Correct
- D. Guwahati to Kandla Port
Answer: C
Show explanation
The East-West Corridor of the National Highways Development Project (NHDP) connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat. It is a four/six-lane highway approximately 3,300 km in length, running across the country to provide an east-west axis complementing the North-South Corridor. It was developed under the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) and traverses several states including Assam, Meghalaya, West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujarat, terminating at the port city of Porbandar on the Arabian Sea coast.
- Q2
Which is the incorrect pair? (1) Satur - Central Aravalli (2) Katada - Southern Aravalli (3) Dur-Marayaji - Central Aravalli (4) Mahoharpura - Northern Aravalli
- A. Satur - Central Aravalli
- B. Katada - Southern Aravalli
- C. Dur-Marayaji - Central Aravalli
- D. Mahoharpura - Northern Aravalli
Explanation coming soon.
- Q3
Which of the following group of districts are correctly arranged in descending order as per the amount of monsoon rainfall they receive?
- A. Dholpur, Rajsamand, Jalore ✓ Correct
- B. Bhilwara, Baran, Sikar
- C. Rajsamand, Jalore, Dholpur
- D. Pali, Jaipur, Bharatpur
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q4
Which three rivers of the following form 'Triveni' Sangam?
- A. Banas, Mainal, Bedach ✓ Correct
- B. Gambhiri, Mansi, Dhundh
- C. Kothari, Khori, Bedach
- D. Som, Aahu, Bandi
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q5
As per the India State of Forest Report 2021, the forest cover in terms of vegetation cover is 16,654 square km, it is ________ percent of Rajasthan's geographical area.
- A. 6.74
- B. 7.48
- C. 8.47
- D. 4.87 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q6
Which are the largest Bauxite and Mica producing States in India? Bauxite - Mica
- A. Madhya Pradesh - Maharashtra
- B. Chhattisgarh - Odisha
- C. Odisha - Andhra Pradesh ✓ Correct
- D. Jharkhand - Rajasthan
Answer: C
Show explanation
Odisha is the largest bauxite producing state in India, with major reserves in the Eastern Ghats region including the Panchpatmali deposits in Koraput district. Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of mica in India, with significant deposits in the Nellore mica belt. While Jharkhand was historically the largest mica producer, current production figures place Andhra Pradesh first. The pairing Odisha (bauxite) and Andhra Pradesh (mica) reflects the production statistics referenced in standard mineral resource compilations used by the Rajasthan Public Service Commission.
- Q7
The first sugar industry based on beet-root was established at -
- A. Sri Ganganagar ✓ Correct
- B. Bhopalsagar
- C. Keshoraypatan
- D. Udaipur
Answer: A
Show explanation
The first sugar industry based on beet-root in Rajasthan was established at Sri Ganganagar. The region's irrigated agriculture, supported by the Gang Canal and later the Indira Gandhi Canal, made it suitable for sugar beet cultivation, an alternative source of sugar to traditional sugarcane. Sri Ganganagar district has been a centre for various agro-based industries due to its fertile soil and assured irrigation, distinguishing it from other sugar mill locations such as Bhopalsagar and Keshoraypatan that historically processed sugarcane.
- Q8
The Mahi Bajaj Sagar Project is a joint venture of -
- A. Rajasthan, Punjab and Gujarat
- B. Gujarat and Rajasthan ✓ Correct
- C. Rajasthan, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh
- D. Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Mahi Bajaj Sagar Project is an interstate project of Gujarat and Rajasthan, not a three-state joint venture. An official Rajasthan government document describes Mahi Bajaj Sagar as an interstate project between Gujarat and Rajasthan for irrigation and power generation. Therefore the correct answer is option (B), Gujarat and Rajasthan.
- Q9 · Geography of Rajasthan
Choose the district of Rajasthan which had the lowest decadal population growth rate between 2001-2011.
- A. Barmer
- B. Sri Ganganagar ✓ Correct
- C. Pali
- D. Bundi
Answer: B
Show explanation
Among the given districts, Sri Ganganagar had the lowest decadal population growth rate in 2001-2011. Census 2011 Table A-02 gives 10.04% for Ganganagar, 11.94% for Pali, 15.40% for Bundi and 32.52% for Barmer. Therefore option (B), Sri Ganganagar, is correct.
- Q10
Kalakhuta, Leelwani, Nardiya, Timmamori are producing regions of which mineral in Rajasthan?
- A. Manganese ✓ Correct
- B. Tungsten
- C. Copper
- D. Iron ore
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q11
Kalisindh Super Thermal Power Station is located at -
- A. Baran
- B. Jhalawar ✓ Correct
- C. Dungarpur
- D. Banswara
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Kalisindh Super Thermal Power Station is located in Jhalawar district of Rajasthan, near the village of Undel on the banks of the Kalisindh River. Operated by the Rajasthan Rajya Vidyut Utpadan Nigam Limited (RVUNL), the plant has an installed capacity of 1200 MW with two units of 600 MW each. It is one of the major coal-based thermal power generation facilities in southern Rajasthan and was commissioned in phases beginning around 2014.
- Q12
Which is not a correct match? Wildlife Sanctuary - District
- A. Shergarh - Bundi ✓ Correct
- B. Bassi - Chittorgarh
- C. Ramsagar Van Vihar - Dholpur
- D. Sitamata - Pratapgarh
Answer: A
Show explanation
The incorrect match is Shergarh Wildlife Sanctuary - Bundi. Shergarh Wildlife Sanctuary is actually located in Baran district of Rajasthan, not Bundi. The other pairings are correct: Bassi Wildlife Sanctuary lies in Chittorgarh district, Ramsagar Van Vihar is situated in Dholpur district, and Sitamata Wildlife Sanctuary spans Pratapgarh and Chittorgarh districts. Shergarh sanctuary is known for its diverse wildlife including chinkara, leopard and sloth bear, and is part of Baran's forested landscape.
- Q13
Mahi Kanchan and RCB 911 are hybrid variety of -
- A. Maize and Barley respectively
- B. Maize and Rice respectively
- C. Maize and Bajra respectively ✓ Correct
- D. Bajra and Maize respectively
Answer: C
Show explanation
Mahi Kanchan and RCB 911 are hybrid varieties of Maize and Bajra respectively. Mahi Kanchan is a popular maize hybrid developed for cultivation in the maize-growing belt of southern Rajasthan and adjoining tribal areas. RCB 911 (Rajasthan Composite Bajra 911) is a pearl millet (bajra) variety developed for the arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan, suited to low-rainfall conditions. Both varieties are promoted by Rajasthan's agricultural research institutions for their respective crop-suitable agro-climatic zones.
- Q14
Consider the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India: (i) The final session of the Constituent Assembly was held on 24th January, 1950. (ii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was declared to be duly elected to the office of President of India in this final session.
- A. Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
- B. Both (i) and (ii) are correct. ✓ Correct
- C. only (ii) is correct.
- D. only (i) is correct.
Answer: B
Show explanation
Both statements are correct. The final session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held on 24th January 1950. On that day, members signed the Constitution and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was declared duly elected as the first President of India in this final session. The Constitution had already been adopted on 26th November 1949 and was scheduled to come into force on 26th January 1950 (Republic Day). The 24th January session also adopted the national anthem and national song.
- Q15 · Indian Constitution & Governance
Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India was added to the Constitution by the first Constitutional Amendment?
- A. Sixth
- B. Tenth
- C. Ninth ✓ Correct
- D. Seventh
Answer: C
Show explanation
The First Amendment Act, 1951 added the Ninth Schedule along with Articles 31A and 31B. Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule were intended to be immune from judicial review. However, in I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), the SC held that laws added after April 24, 1973 can be reviewed if they violate the basic structure.
- Q16
Identify the incorrect statement regarding Judicial Interpretation of Article 21 after Supreme Court's verdict in Maneka Gandhi Case, 1978.
- A. The burden lies on the petitioner to prove that the procedure established by law which deprives him of his life or personal liberty is arbitrary. ✓ Correct
- B. 'Procedure established by law' is by and large synonymous with the 'Procedural due process' as prevalent in the U.S.A.
- C. Articles 21, 19 and 14 are not mutually exclusive.
- D. 'The Right to Life' includes 'The Right to Live with Dignity'.
Answer: A
Show explanation
After the Maneka Gandhi case (1978), the burden does NOT lie on the petitioner to prove that the procedure depriving life or personal liberty is arbitrary; rather, the State must justify the reasonableness, fairness and non-arbitrariness of the procedure. The Supreme Court ruled that 'procedure established by law' under Article 21 must be just, fair and reasonable, broadly aligning with American 'due process'. The judgment also held that Articles 14, 19 and 21 are interconnected (the 'golden triangle'), and the right to life includes the right to live with dignity.
- Q17 · Rajasthan History, Art & Culture
Nathmal Ji Ki Haveli is located in
- A. Barmer
- B. Bikaner
- C. Jodhpur
- D. Jaisalmer ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Nathmal Ji Ki Haveli is located in Jaisalmer. Rajasthan Tourism states that two architect brothers built Nathmal Ji Ki Haveli in the 19th century. It is famous for its intricate stone carvings.
- Q18
Identify the incorrect statement regarding Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
- A. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan is the only Chairman of Rajya Sabha for two consecutive terms. ✓ Correct
- B. For the first constitutional amendment, ratification of the Rajya Sabha was not taken.
- C. Currently eight members are elected to Rajya Sabha from the Union Territories.
- D. There have been three occasions, when joint sitting of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha was held.
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q19
Which one of the following statement is not correct regarding 'No-Confidence Motion'?
- A. 27 No-Confidence Motions, 9 Confidence Motions have been moved till 15th August, 2023.
- B. Lal Bahadur Shastri faced the most No-Confidence Motions per office year.
- C. The member who wants to move No-Confidence Motion give notice to the speaker of the Lok Sabha in writing.
- D. No-Confidence Motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha.
Explanation coming soon.
- Q20
Match the following List - P (Directive Principles) with List - R (Articles): A. Equal justice and free legal aid I. Article 48 A; B. Protection of the environment II. Article 39 A; C. Right to Work III. Article 41; D. Protection of Monuments IV. Article 49. Select correct option:
- A. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
- B. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV ✓ Correct
- C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
- D. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Answer: B
Show explanation
The correct matching is A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV. Article 39A provides for equal justice and free legal aid, ensuring access to justice irrespective of economic disability. Article 48A directs the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife. Article 41 deals with the right to work, education and public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement. Article 49 directs the State to protect monuments and places of national importance. All four articles fall under the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.
- Q21
Which of the following sections of the Right to Information Act is not related to the functions and powers of the Central Information Commission?
- A. 25
- B. 19
- C. 18
- D. 12 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Section 12 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 deals with the constitution of the Central Information Commission, including the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners by the President. It does not concern the functions and powers of the Commission. In contrast, Section 18 deals with the powers and functions of Information Commissions, Section 19 covers the appellate procedure and Section 25 deals with monitoring and reporting requirements. Therefore Section 12 is the correct answer as it pertains to the Commission's constitution rather than its functional powers.
- Q22
Which one of the following Commission did recommend the establishment of an Inter-Government Council in place of Inter-State Council?
- A. Rajmannar Commission
- B. Punchhi Commission
- C. Administrative Reforms Commission, 1969
- D. Sarkaria Commission ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Sarkaria Commission recommended that a permanent Inter-State Council called the Inter-Governmental Council should be set up under Article 263. The Union Government later set up the Inter-State Council under Article 263 in 1990 in pursuance of this recommendation. Therefore the correct option is (d) Sarkaria Commission; the Punchhi Commission was a later Centre-State Relations Commission chaired by Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi.
- Q23
Consider the following statements: (i) The Lok Sabha Elections of 1989 marked the end of, what Political Scientists have called, the 'Congress System'. (ii) Indian National Congress emerged as the single largest party in the 1989 Lok Sabha Elections.
- A. Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
- B. Both (i) and (ii) are correct. ✓ Correct
- C. Only (ii) is correct.
- D. Only (i) is correct.
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q24
Match the following List-P (CAG) with List-R (Articles): A. Appointment of CAG I. Article 148; B. Duties and Powers of CAG II. Article 151; C. Form of Accounts of the Union III. Article 149; D. Audit Reports IV. Article 150. Select correct option:
- A. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II ✓ Correct
- B. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
- C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
- D. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Answer: A
Show explanation
The correct match is A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II. Article 148 deals with the appointment, oath and conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Article 149 lays down the duties and powers of the CAG with respect to accounts of the Union and States. Article 150 prescribes the form in which accounts of the Union and States shall be kept. Article 151 deals with audit reports relating to the accounts of the Union, which are submitted to the President and laid before Parliament.
- Q25
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the Chief Minister of Rajasthan?
- A. Mohanlal Sukhadia took oath as Chief Minister four times.
- B. The Chief Minister at the time of Emergency of 1975 was Haridev Joshi.
- C. Barkatullah Khan remained the Chief Minister for the shortest period.
- D. C.S. Venkatachari was not the elected Chief Minister.
Explanation coming soon.
- Q26
What can be the minimum strength of Rajasthan's Council of Ministers?
- A. 12 ✓ Correct
- B. 10
- C. 08
- D. 05
Answer: A
Show explanation
The minimum strength of Rajasthan's Council of Ministers is 12. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 stipulated that the total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly, with a minimum floor of 12 ministers. This minimum applies to smaller states; it ensures even small State assemblies have a functional ministry. Rajasthan, with 200 MLAs, observes the 15% upper cap and the 12-member minimum.
- Q27
In the Presidential Election, 2022, the vote value of each member of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly was -
- A. 149
- B. 132
- C. 129
- D. 116
Explanation coming soon.
- Q28
According to Article 217(1) of the Constitution, a Judge other than the Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court is appointed by the President after consultation with -
- A. Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court, Attorney General of India and Governor of Rajasthan.
- B. Governor of Rajasthan, Chief Justice of India and Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court. ✓ Correct
- C. Union Law and Justice Minister and Governor of Rajasthan.
- D. Chief Justice of India and Governor of Rajasthan.
Answer: B
Show explanation
Under Article 217(1) of the Constitution, a Judge of a High Court (other than the Chief Justice) is appointed by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State and, in the case of appointment of a judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of that High Court. Therefore for the Rajasthan High Court, consultation involves the Governor of Rajasthan, the Chief Justice of India and the Chief Justice of the Rajasthan High Court. Post the Collegium system rulings, this consultation has acquired primacy of the judiciary.
- Q29
Which of the following recommended the post of Rajpramukh to be abolished in Rajasthan and the arrangement of the Governor was made instead?
- A. State Legislative Assembly
- B. Constituent Assembly
- C. State Reorganization Commission ✓ Correct
- D. State Administrative Reforms Commission
Answer: C
Show explanation
The State Reorganization Commission (also known as the Fazal Ali Commission), constituted in 1953, recommended the abolition of the post of Rajpramukh in princely states and the substitution of the Governor as the constitutional head of states under uniform federal arrangements. Following the recommendations of this Commission and the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, the Rajpramukh institution was abolished across India effective 1 November 1956, and the Governor became the constitutional head of Rajasthan. The Commission had members Justice Fazal Ali, K.M. Panikkar and H.N. Kunzru.
- Q30
Which one of the following is not a part of Rajasthan Urban Drinking Water Sewerage and Infrastructure Corporation Limited?
- A. Rajasthan Urban Infrastructure Finance and Development Corporation Limited
- B. Rajasthan Avas Vikas Infrastructure Limited
- C. Rajasthan Housing Board ✓ Correct
- D. Rajasthan Urban Infrastructure Development Project
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Rajasthan Housing Board (RHB) is not a part of the Rajasthan Urban Drinking Water Sewerage and Infrastructure Corporation Limited (RUDSICO). RUDSICO is an umbrella corporation that integrates Rajasthan Urban Infrastructure Finance and Development Corporation, Rajasthan Avas Vikas and Infrastructure Limited, and the Rajasthan Urban Infrastructure Development Project. The Rajasthan Housing Board is an autonomous body for housing development and is not subsumed under RUDSICO. RUDSICO was created to consolidate urban infrastructure financing and project execution under the Local Self Government Department.
- Q31
Through which Amendment Act, the existing 'Village Level Workers' has been substituted by the 'Gram Vikas Adhikari'?
- A. The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015
- B. The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2017
- C. The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2019
- D. The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2021 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q32
Consider the following statements regarding Rajasthan Public Service Commission: (i) The chairman and members of the commission are appointed by the Governor of Rajasthan. (ii) The chairman or any other member of the commission shall only be removed from his office, by order of the President.
- A. Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
- B. Both (i) and (ii) are correct. ✓ Correct
- C. Only (ii) is correct.
- D. Only (i) is correct.
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q33
Tehsildar is appointed by -
- A. The Union Public Service Commission
- B. The Staff Selection Commission
- C. Rajasthan Public Service Commission
- D. The Board of Revenue ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
For RAS Prelims 2023 Q33, the official RPSC final answer key marks response 4 as correct. In this question, response 4 is The Board of Revenue. Therefore option D is correct, and Rajasthan Public Service Commission is not the accepted answer for this PYQ.
- Q34
A Committee constituted in 2014 under the Chairmanship of Narpat Mal Lodha is related to which of the following subjects?
- A. Panchayati Raj
- B. Human Rights
- C. Governor
- D. Lokayukta ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The committee constituted in 2014 under the chairmanship of Narpat Mal Lodha was related to the Lokayukta in Rajasthan. The committee was tasked with examining and recommending reforms to the Rajasthan Lokayukta institution, including its scope, powers and the office's effectiveness in dealing with corruption complaints against public functionaries. The committee's recommendations informed subsequent legislative discussions on strengthening the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayuktas Act, 1973 and aligning state anti-corruption mechanisms with the central Lokpal framework.
- Q35 · Indian Constitution & Governance
Consider the following statements regarding State Election Commission, Rajasthan: (i) It was constituted in July, 1994 under Article 243 K of the Constitution of India. (ii) It is a single member commission headed by the State Election Commissioner.
- A. Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
- B. Both (i) and (ii) are correct. ✓ Correct
- C. Only (ii) is correct.
- D. Only (i) is correct.
Answer: B
Show explanation
Both statements are correct. Article 243K provides for the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Panchayats to be vested in a State Election Commission. It also provides for a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner appointed by the Governor. Therefore, the stored option (b), both statements correct, is justified.
- Q36
In April, 2023, a Bench of Rajasthan State Information Commission is approved by State Government to be established at which city?
- A. Ajmer
- B. Kota
- C. Jodhpur ✓ Correct
- D. Udaipur
Answer: C
Show explanation
In April 2023, the Rajasthan State Government approved the establishment of a Bench of the Rajasthan State Information Commission at Jodhpur. This decision was taken to facilitate easier access to RTI appellate redress for residents of western Rajasthan, reducing the need for appellants and respondents to travel to the Commission's main office in Jaipur. The Jodhpur bench was envisaged to handle second appeals and complaints originating from western districts, improving the time-bound disposal of RTI matters across the state.
- Q37
Which of the following scheme is associated with slogan - 'Koi Bhukha Na Soye'?
- A. Balgopal Scheme
- B. Indira Gandhi Rojgar Guarantee Scheme
- C. Annpurna Food Packet Scheme
- D. Indira Rasoi Yojana ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The official RPSC answer for this RAS 2023 PYQ remains option D because the slogan Koi Bhukha Na Soye was associated with the then Indira Rasoi Yojana. For current study, update the scheme name and status: Rajasthan's Economic Review describes Shri Annapurna Rasoi Yojana as formerly Indira Rasoi Yojana, and the 2024-25 review states that Shri Annapurna Rasoi Yojana is currently being run in urban bodies with meals at Rs. 8 per plate and a state grant of Rs. 22 per plate. Thus the historical PYQ answer is Indira Rasoi Yojana, but current references should use Shri Annapurna Rasoi Yojana.
- Q38
Consider the following statements regarding Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission: (i) Commission has one chairperson and four members in accordance with the provisions of The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. (ii) At present, Justice Gopal Krishna Vyas is its chairperson.
- A. Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
- B. Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
- C. Only (ii) is correct. ✓ Correct
- D. Only (i) is correct.
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q39
Which of the following expression shows the formula of Gross Fiscal Deficit?
- A. Gross Fiscal Deficit = Primary Deficit + Net borrowing from abroad
- B. Gross Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - Revenue Receipts
- C. Gross Fiscal Deficit = Revenue Deficit + Capital Expenditure
- D. Gross Fiscal Deficit = Net borrowing at home + Borrowing from RBI + Borrowing from abroad ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Gross Fiscal Deficit (GFD) is defined as the total borrowing requirement of the government, which equals net borrowing at home plus borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India plus borrowing from abroad. This formulation captures the total financing gap between the government's revenue and expenditure (including capital expenditure) that is met through borrowings from various sources. While GFD can also be expressed as Total Expenditure minus Revenue Receipts minus non-debt Capital Receipts, the financing-side decomposition into domestic borrowing, RBI borrowing and external borrowing is a standard textbook formula.
- Q40 · Indian Constitution & Governance
Which of the following is NOT a Public good?
- A. Government Administration
- B. National Defence
- C. Cars ✓ Correct
- D. Roads
Answer: C
Show explanation
Cars are not public goods. NCERT distinguishes public goods such as national defence, roads and government administration from private goods such as clothes, cars and food items. Public goods are broadly non-rival and non-excludable, while a car is privately owned, excludable and rival in use. Therefore, option (c) is correct.
- Q41
Consider the following statements regarding inflation: Statement (A): Head-line inflation refers to the rate of change in the Consumer Price Index Number, a measure of the average price of a standard basket of goods and services consumed by a typical family. Statement (B): Core inflation measures the change in average consumer prices after excluding from the Consumer Price Index certain items of volatile prices such as food and fuel. Of these statements,
- A. Neither (A) nor (B) is correct.
- B. Both (A) and (B) are correct. ✓ Correct
- C. Only (B) is correct.
- D. Only (A) is correct.
Answer: B
Show explanation
Both statements are correct. Headline inflation refers to the rate of change in the Consumer Price Index, which measures average prices of a representative basket of goods and services consumed by a typical household. Core inflation is derived from the CPI by excluding items with volatile prices, particularly food and fuel, to give a clearer picture of underlying inflationary pressures in the economy. Central banks, including the Reserve Bank of India, monitor both indicators - core inflation helps assess persistent price trends while headline inflation reflects the actual cost-of-living impact.
- Q42
Consider the following statements regarding Indira Gandhi Urban Employment Guarantee Scheme: (i) It guarantees per year 125 days' employment for families residing in Urban Areas. (ii) After registration, the eligible candidate has to be provided employment in 30 days.
- A. Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
- B. Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
- C. Only (ii) is correct.
- D. Only (i) is correct. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Only statement (i) is correct. Rajasthan's guaranteed-income law provides that every adult person residing in urban areas has a right to guaranteed employment for at least 125 days in a financial year. It also provides unemployment allowance if the Programme Officer fails to provide employment within 15 days from receipt of the application; therefore, the statement mentioning 30 days is incorrect. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
- Q43
Which of the following is not a measure of selective credit control?
- A. Change in lending margins
- B. Sale of government securities ✓ Correct
- C. Credit rationing
- D. Moral suasion
Answer: B
Show explanation
The sale of government securities is not a measure of selective credit control; it is a quantitative or general credit control instrument falling under Open Market Operations (OMO). Selective credit control measures target specific sectors or types of credit and include changes in lending margins, credit rationing and moral suasion. Open market operations affect overall liquidity in the banking system and the volume of credit in the economy as a whole, rather than directing credit to or restricting it from particular sectors. Therefore the answer is the sale of government securities.
- Q44
Which of the following statement, related to Pharmaceutical sector is not correct?
- A. India has 80 percent market share of global vaccine manufacturing. ✓ Correct
- B. India is the largest provider of generic medicines globally.
- C. India is ranked 14th worldwide in the production of pharma products by value.
- D. India is ranked 3rd worldwide in the production of pharma products by volume.
Answer: A
Show explanation
The incorrect statement in the 2023 PYQ framing is that India has an 80 percent share of global vaccine manufacturing. PIB states that India accounts for about 60 percent of global vaccine production, not 80 percent. India has been described in official releases as the largest global supplier of generic medicines and the third-largest pharmaceutical producer by volume. The older 14th-by-value figure should be read in the exam's time context; newer PIB material now gives India's value rank as 11th.
- Q45
The rank of India in Global Happiness Index 2023 is
- A. 115
- B. 118
- C. 126 ✓ Correct
- D. 136
Answer: C
Show explanation
India was ranked 126th in the World Happiness Report 2023, published by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network. The report ranked 137 countries based on factors including GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom to make life choices, generosity and perceptions of corruption. Finland topped the rankings for the sixth consecutive year. India's position of 126 reflected challenges around social support and freedom indicators relative to high-income peers. The 2023 ranking was a slight improvement from previous editions where India had ranked even lower.
- Q46
Which of the following statement related to automobile sector is not correct?
- A. It generated direct and indirect employment of 5.3 crore at the end of 2021. ✓ Correct
- B. It contributes 7.1 percent to India's GDP.
- C. In 2021, India was World's fourth largest manufacturer of passenger cars.
- D. In 2021, India was the largest manufacturer of two wheeler and three wheeler vehicles in the World.
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q47
Which of the following is NOT a tool of fiscal policy?
- A. Public expenditure
- B. Interest rate ✓ Correct
- C. Deficit financing
- D. Taxation
Answer: B
Show explanation
Interest rate is not a tool of fiscal policy; it is a tool of monetary policy controlled by the Reserve Bank of India. Fiscal policy involves government decisions on taxation, public expenditure and deficit financing - all instruments through which the government influences aggregate demand, redistribution and economic growth. The interest rate (specifically the policy repo rate, reverse repo and MSF) is used by the central bank to manage inflation and money supply, and is therefore a monetary policy instrument distinct from fiscal levers like taxation, government spending and borrowing.
- Q48
As per the advance estimates of the year 2022-23, what percent share is Rajasthan's GSDP estimated to contribute in India's nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
- A. 6.54 percent
- B. 5.18 percent
- C. 4.86 percent
- D. 3.78 percent
Explanation coming soon.
- Q49
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for Atal Bhujal Scheme in Rajasthan? (a) Atal Bhujal Scheme has been running by Government of Rajasthan with the Financial assistance of Govt. of India. (b) The focus of this scheme is on better management of ground water as well as to prevent its reducing level. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
- A. Neither (a) nor (b)
- B. Only (b)
- C. Only (a)
- D. Both (a) and (b) ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Both statements (a) and (b) are correct. The Atal Bhujal Yojana (Atal Jal) is a scheme run by the Government of Rajasthan with financial assistance from the Government of India, supported by World Bank funding. Its primary focus is sustainable groundwater management, with emphasis on community participation in water budgeting and prevention of further depletion of groundwater levels in critical and over-exploited blocks. The scheme covers identified water-stressed areas across multiple states including Rajasthan, where groundwater extraction has historically exceeded recharge, particularly in arid western districts.
- Q50
Which of the following fact is not correct about Mukhya Mantri Laghu Udhyog Protsahan Yojana (MLUPY) of Rajasthan?
- A. Under this scheme, 4 percent interest subsidy on loans upto 15 crore is being provided to small scale entrepreneurs. ✓ Correct
- B. Under this scheme, 5 percent interest subsidy on loans upto 10 crore is being provided to small scale entrepreneurs.
- C. Under this scheme, 6 percent interest subsidy on loans upto 5 crore is being provided to small scale entrepreneurs.
- D. Under this scheme, 8 percent interest subsidy on loans upto 25 lakh is being provided to small scale entrepreneurs.
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q51
In the year 2022-23, contribution of which sub-sector in Gross State Value Added (GSVA) at current prices of service sector of Rajasthan was maximum?
- A. Transport, Storage & Communication
- B. Trade, Hotels and Restaurants ✓ Correct
- C. Real Estate, Ownership of dwellings & professional services
- D. Financial Services
Answer: B
Show explanation
In 2022-23, within Rajasthan's services sector, Trade, Hotels and Restaurants contributed the maximum share to Gross State Value Added at current prices, at about 27.69%. Real Estate, Ownership of Dwellings and Professional Services followed with about 24.62%. Therefore, the correct answer is option (b), Trade, Hotels and Restaurants.
- Q52
Which sector is likely to show highest increase in the real GSVA (Gross State Value Added) at constant basic prices (2011-12) in the year 2022-23 over previous year?
- A. None of these
- B. Service sector ✓ Correct
- C. Industry sector
- D. Agriculture sector
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Service sector was projected to show the highest increase in real GSVA at constant basic prices (2011-12) in 2022-23 over the previous year in Rajasthan. The Rajasthan Economic Review 2022-23 reports broad-sector constant-price growth of 5.22 percent for agriculture, 6.32 percent for industry and 10.74 percent for services. Therefore, among the given options, the correct answer is Service sector.
- Q53
Which agency is funding upgradation of 801 km of 11 state highways in Rajasthan State Highways Development Program-II project?
- A. NABARD
- B. National Highway Authority of India
- C. World Bank ✓ Correct
- D. Asian Development Bank
Answer: C
Show explanation
The World Bank is funding the upgradation of 801 km of 11 state highways under the Rajasthan State Highways Development Program-II (RSHDP-II). The project, supported through a World Bank loan, aims to improve connectivity, road safety and efficiency on key state highway corridors managed by the Rajasthan Public Works Department. The programme follows the earlier RSHDP-I and is part of a broader infrastructure modernisation initiative covering capacity augmentation, pavement strengthening and bridge repairs across selected highway stretches in Rajasthan.
- Q54
In Rajasthan, which agency is entrusted with the responsibility of implementation of PM-KUSUM Yojana (component A) i.e. installation of small solar power plants of 0.5 MW to 2 MW capacity?
- A. Bureau of Energy Efficiency
- B. Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited ✓ Correct
- C. Rajasthan Rajya Vidyut Utpadan Nigam Limited
- D. Rajasthan Vidyut Prasaran Nigam
Answer: B
Show explanation
At the time of the RAS 2023 question, Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited handled PM-KUSUM Component A in Rajasthan, under which decentralised grid-connected solar power plants of 0.5 MW to 2 MW were set up. Rajasthan's 2026-27 Economic Review records that this implementation, initially handled by RRECL, was transferred to the Rajasthan Discoms on 23 July 2024. Thus the historical answer to the 2023 PYQ is option (b), but RRECL should not be read as the current sole implementing agency.
- Q55 · Rajasthan History, Art & Culture
In Rajasthan, the Energy Conservation Day is celebrated on
- A. 14th December ✓ Correct
- B. 5th June
- C. 22nd April
- D. 21st March
Answer: A
Show explanation
Energy Conservation Day is observed annually on 14 December. In India, the Bureau of Energy Efficiency under the Ministry of Power uses this occasion to raise awareness about energy efficiency and to recognise energy-conservation achievements. Therefore, option (a), 14 December, is correct.
- Q56
Government of Rajasthan enacted the Rajasthan Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act in year
- A. 2008
- B. 2005 ✓ Correct
- C. 2003
- D. 2001
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Government of Rajasthan enacted the Rajasthan Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act in 2005. The legislation aims to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management, long-term macroeconomic stability and prudent debt management consistent with fiscal sustainability. Under the Act, the State Government is mandated to reduce revenue deficit and fiscal deficit to specified targets, present a Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement, a Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement and a Macroeconomic Framework Statement before the Legislature, and adhere to limits on guarantees and borrowings.
- Q57
In which of the following scheme, the main objective is to promote the use of appropriate methods, care and services during pregnancy, safe delivery and lactation period to improve the health and nutritional status of pregnant and lactating women and their infants (0-6 months)?
- A. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana ✓ Correct
- B. Indira Gandhi Matrutva Poshan Yojana
- C. Mission Vatsalya Yojana
- D. Palanhar Yojana
Answer: A
Show explanation
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana is the scheme with this stated objective. Rajasthan Economic Review 2023-24 says its main objective is to promote appropriate methods, care and services during pregnancy, safe delivery and the lactation period to improve the health and nutritional status of pregnant and lactating women and their infants aged 0-6 months. Therefore, option A is correct.
- Q58
Which of the following options indicate one of the important objectives of (Indira Mahila) Shakti Udaan Scheme?
- A. Empowering women self-help groups.
- B. Generating awareness about menstrual health and hygiene management. ✓ Correct
- C. Vocational training of women.
- D. Improvement in education status of girls.
Answer: B
Show explanation
One of the important objectives of the Indira Mahila Shakti Udaan Scheme is generating awareness about menstrual health and hygiene management. The scheme of the Rajasthan Government aims at promoting menstrual hygiene by distributing free sanitary napkins to adolescent girls and women through schools, anganwadi centres and other channels. The scheme also addresses the social taboos surrounding menstruation, promotes safe disposal practices, and helps reduce dropout rates of adolescent girls from schools by ensuring access to hygiene products and information.
- Q59
Which among the following is a Narcotic analgesic drug?
- A. Morphine ✓ Correct
- B. Arsphenamine
- C. Aspirin
- D. Paracetamol
Answer: A
Show explanation
Morphine is a narcotic analgesic drug. Derived from opium, it is used medically to relieve severe pain and acts on the central nervous system to produce analgesia. Morphine is classified as an opioid narcotic and is regulated under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 in India. Aspirin and paracetamol are non-narcotic analgesics; aspirin is also an anti-inflammatory while paracetamol is an antipyretic-analgesic. Arsphenamine is a historic antimicrobial used to treat syphilis (Salvarsan), not an analgesic.
- Q60
Myopia and Hypermetropia can be respectively corrected by
- A. Plano-concave and Cylindrical lens
- B. Convex and Concave lens
- C. Concave and Convex lens ✓ Correct
- D. Concave and Cylindrical lens
Answer: C
Show explanation
Myopia (short-sightedness) is corrected using a concave (diverging) lens, which spreads the incoming parallel light rays so that they converge on the retina rather than in front of it. Hypermetropia (long-sightedness or far-sightedness) is corrected using a convex (converging) lens, which converges the light rays sufficiently so that they form an image on the retina rather than behind it. The respective correction is therefore concave for myopia and convex for hypermetropia, as given in option (c).
- Q61
Which of the following schemes is an attempt to make rural areas socially, economically and physically sustainable regions?
- A. Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission (SPMRM) ✓ Correct
- B. Mahatma Gandhi Jan-bhagidari Vikas Yojana (MGJVY)
- C. Dang Area Development Programme
- D. Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission (SPMRM) aims to make rural areas socially, economically and physically sustainable by developing 'rurban' clusters - geographically contiguous villages that exhibit potential for growth and have economic and demographic attributes of urban areas while retaining the rural ethos. Launched in 2016 by the Ministry of Rural Development, the mission focuses on bridging rural-urban divides by providing economic, social and physical infrastructure to selected clusters. SAGY focuses on individual model villages, while MGJVY and DADP have different scopes specific to Rajasthan.
- Q62
Arrange the following units of measure for digital information into correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going to the largest unit: a. Kilobyte b. Byte c. Megabyte d. Terabyte e. Gigabyte f. Bit
- A. b f a d c e
- B. f b a c e d ✓ Correct
- C. f b a d e c
- D. b f a c d e
Answer: B
Show explanation
The correct ascending order of digital information units is Bit, Byte, Kilobyte, Megabyte, Gigabyte and Terabyte. Mapped to the labels in the question, this sequence is f, b, a, c, e, d. Therefore, the correct answer is option (b), and the option (d) reference in the earlier explanation was contradictory.
- Q63
On 23rd August 2023, LCA (Light Combat Aircraft) Tejas successfully test fired ASTRA missile, this missile is
- A. Beyond Visual Range Surface to Air Missile
- B. Beyond Visual Range Air to Air Missile ✓ Correct
- C. Within Visual Range Air to Air Missile
- D. Within Visual Range Surface to Air Missile
Answer: B
Show explanation
ASTRA is a Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM) developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). On 23rd August 2023, it was successfully test-fired from an LCA Tejas aircraft. With a range of around 100 km in its Mk-1 variant, ASTRA is designed to engage and destroy hostile aircraft at long ranges. It uses active radar homing for terminal guidance and is integrated with the Su-30MKI as well as Tejas platforms of the Indian Air Force.
- Q64
Satellites TeLEOS-2 and Lumelite-4 were launched in April 2023 from Sriharikota by the launcher
- A. SSLV - D2
- B. LVM3 - M4
- C. PSLV - C55 ✓ Correct
- D. GSLV - F12
Answer: C
Show explanation
Satellites TeLEOS-2 and Lumelite-4 were launched in April 2023 from Sriharikota by the PSLV-C55 mission. PSLV-C55 was a dedicated commercial mission of NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), undertaken on behalf of Singapore's DSO National Laboratories. TeLEOS-2 was a synthetic aperture radar earth observation satellite, while Lumelite-4 was a technology demonstrator for Singapore's Maritime Safety Network. The mission successfully placed both satellites in their intended orbits, and the PS4 stage was used as an orbital platform for hosting payloads.
- Q65
If in a material one dimension is reduced to the Nano range while the other two dimensions remain large, the structure so obtained is known as
- A. Quantum step
- B. Quantum well ✓ Correct
- C. Quantum dot
- D. Quantum wire
Answer: B
Show explanation
When one dimension of a material is reduced to the nanometer range while the other two dimensions remain large, the resulting structure is called a quantum well. In a quantum well, electron motion is confined in one direction, while the carriers move freely in the other two dimensions. By contrast, a quantum wire confines motion in two directions (free in one), and a quantum dot confines motion in all three directions. Quantum wells are extensively used in semiconductor lasers, LEDs and other optoelectronic devices.
- Q66
Which of the following file format is not a video file format?
- A. .MP3 ✓ Correct
- B. .MP4
- C. .MOV
- D. .AVI
Answer: A
Show explanation
The .MP3 file format is not a video file format - it is an audio compression format (MPEG-1 Audio Layer III) used for storing digital audio. The other options listed (.MP4, .MOV, .AVI) are all video container formats: .MP4 is a widely used MPEG-4 multimedia container, .MOV is Apple's QuickTime container format, and .AVI (Audio Video Interleave) is a Microsoft multimedia container. Therefore .MP3 is the odd one out as it stores only audio rather than video streams.
- Q67
Choose wrong statement regarding proteins:
- A. We obtain proteins from both animals and plants.
- B. Proteins are made of amino acids.
- C. About 30 percent of our body weight comes from proteins. ✓ Correct
- D. Proteins are called building block of our body.
Answer: C
Show explanation
The wrong statement is that about 30 percent of our body weight comes from proteins. In reality, proteins account for approximately 16-20 percent of total body weight, second only to water (which is about 60 percent). The other statements are correct: proteins are obtained from both animal sources (meat, eggs, dairy) and plant sources (pulses, soy, nuts); they are made up of amino acids linked by peptide bonds; and they are often called the building blocks of the body because they are essential for tissue growth, repair and structural functions.
- Q68
The Red Blood cells of a person with Blood group 'O' contains Agglutinogen
- A. A and B both
- B. Only B
- C. Neither A nor B ✓ Correct
- D. Only A
Answer: C
Show explanation
Red blood cells of a person with blood group 'O' contain neither A nor B agglutinogens (antigens) on their surface. This absence of A and B antigens is what defines the O blood group. However, individuals with O blood group have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies (agglutinins) in their plasma. Because their RBCs lack both antigens, O-negative individuals are universal donors for red cells. The presence or absence of agglutinogens is the basis for the ABO blood grouping system discovered by Karl Landsteiner.
- Q69
Which one of the following diseases is not a bacterial disease?
- A. Diphtheria
- B. Plague
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Dengue ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Dengue is not a bacterial disease - it is a viral infection caused by the dengue virus, a member of the Flaviviridae family, transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Aedes aegypti mosquitoes. The other listed diseases are bacterial: Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Plague by Yersinia pestis, and Pneumonia is commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae (though it can also be viral or fungal). Dengue therefore stands out as the viral disease in this list.
- Q70
Species of Plasmodium which causes Malignant Malaria:
- A. Vivax
- B. Falciparum ✓ Correct
- C. Ovale
- D. Malarial
Answer: B
Show explanation
Plasmodium falciparum causes malignant malaria, which is the most severe and potentially fatal form of malaria. It is responsible for the majority of malaria deaths worldwide, particularly in sub-Saharan Africa. Falciparum infection can lead to complications such as cerebral malaria, severe anaemia and multi-organ failure. The other species - Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale and Plasmodium malariae - typically cause milder forms of malaria, with vivax and ovale also being noted for their tendency to relapse due to dormant liver-stage parasites.
- Q71
NTU is the unit for measuring
- A. Pressure of water
- B. Temperature of water
- C. Acidity of water
- D. Turbidity of water ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
NTU stands for Nephelometric Turbidity Units, which is the standard unit for measuring the turbidity of water - that is, the cloudiness or haziness caused by suspended particles such as silt, clay, organic matter, microorganisms and other solids. Turbidity is measured using a nephelometer, which detects light scattered by suspended particles at a 90-degree angle from the incident beam. NTU values are commonly used in drinking water quality standards; the World Health Organisation recommends turbidity below 1 NTU for effective disinfection.
- Q72
Which of the following do not grow in polluted area?
- A. Pseudomonas
- B. Algae
- C. Lichen ✓ Correct
- D. Gymnosperms
Answer: C
Show explanation
Lichens do not grow in polluted areas. They are extremely sensitive to air pollution, particularly sulphur dioxide and other pollutants, and serve as bio-indicators of air quality. Their absence in industrial or urban environments often signals high pollution levels. Pseudomonas bacteria can survive in many polluted environments, algae often thrive in nutrient-rich polluted waters (eutrophication), and gymnosperms can tolerate moderate pollution. Lichens, being a symbiotic association of fungi and algae/cyanobacteria, lack the protective cuticle to filter pollutants and are therefore the most pollution-sensitive group.
- Q73
Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology is situated at
- A. Thiruvananthapuram ✓ Correct
- B. Faridabad
- C. Jodhpur
- D. New Delhi
Answer: A
Show explanation
The institute began as C-DEST in 1990; it became RGC-DEST in 1991, and the change of name to Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology was sanctioned on March 21, 1997.
- Q74
Out of total Oxygen present in the earth's atmosphere, the estimated production of oxygen by Amazon forest through photosynthesis is
- A. 40 percent
- B. 50 percent
- C. 70 percent
- D. 20 percent ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The official RPSC answer key for this RAS 2023 PYQ marks option D, 20 percent, reflecting the older classroom estimate. For current study, do not treat the 20 percent figure as a settled live scientific fact: NOAA states that roughly half of Earth's oxygen production comes from the ocean, mainly from oceanic plankton. The safe takeaway is exam-key D for this PYQ, with a currency note that the Amazon oxygen figure is disputed in current science.
- Q75 · Geography of Rajasthan
National Research Centre on camel is located at
- A. Jodhpur
- B. Avikanagar
- C. Bikaner ✓ Correct
- D. Ajmer
Answer: C
Show explanation
NRCC (now ICAR-National Research Centre on Camel) is at Jorbeed, Bikaner, dedicated to camel research and conservation.
- Q76
Which one of the following is a group of millet crops?
- A. Bajra, Maize, Kodo, Sorghum
- B. Ragi, Bajra, Kodo, Moong
- C. Kodo, Bajra, Maize, Kangani
- D. Sorghum, Kodo, Kangani, Ragi ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Sorghum (jowar), Kodo, Kangani (foxtail millet) and Ragi (finger millet) are all millet crops. Millets are small-grained, dryland cereal crops which include sorghum, pearl millet (bajra), finger millet (ragi), foxtail millet (kangani), kodo millet, little millet, barnyard millet and proso millet. The year 2023 was declared the International Year of Millets by the United Nations on India's proposal. Maize is technically not a millet (it is classified separately as a coarse cereal), and Moong (green gram) is a pulse, eliminating the other options.
- Q77
Which of these companies is established by Government of Rajasthan with the aim to regulate developing needs of Information Technology skills in 21st century?
- A. Rajasthan Knowledge Company Ltd.
- B. Rajasthan Technology Pvt. Ltd.
- C. Rajasthan Knowledge Corporation Ltd. ✓ Correct
- D. Rajasthan Technology Corporation Ltd.
Answer: C
Show explanation
Rajasthan Knowledge Company Limited (RKCL) was established by the Government of Rajasthan with the aim of regulating and developing IT skills in the 21st century. RKCL is a public-private partnership entity that designs, develops and delivers IT literacy programmes including the popular Rajasthan State Certificate Course in Information Technology (RSCIT). Through a network of authorised IT-Gyan Kendras (ITGKs) across the state, RKCL has trained millions of students in computer literacy, contributing significantly to digital literacy and employability among Rajasthan's youth.
- Q78
A bill was passed by Rajasthan Assembly in 2023 to establish second Rajasthan Veterinary and Animal Sciences University at
- A. Ganganagar
- B. Jobner ✓ Correct
- C. Ajmer
- D. Jodhpur
Answer: B
Show explanation
In 2023, the Rajasthan Assembly passed a bill to establish the second Rajasthan Veterinary and Animal Sciences University at Jobner. The first such university (RAJUVAS) is located in Bikaner. The Jobner campus, in Jaipur district, is well known historically for the Sri Karan Narendra Agriculture University. The new veterinary university at Jobner is intended to expand access to veterinary education and research in central Rajasthan and serve as a hub for animal sciences, dairy and livestock management training in the region.
- Q79
Which of these natural resources is considered as non-renewable resource?
- A. Timber
- B. Fossil Fuels ✓ Correct
- C. Solar Energy
- D. Wind Energy
Answer: B
Show explanation
Fossil fuels - including coal, petroleum and natural gas - are considered non-renewable resources because they are formed over millions of years from organic matter under high pressure and temperature, and their stocks deplete much faster than they are replenished. In contrast, solar energy and wind energy are renewable as they are continuously available from the sun and atmospheric processes. Timber, although exhaustible, is generally classified as renewable when forests are managed sustainably. Therefore among the options, fossil fuels are the only non-renewable natural resource listed.
- Q80
A statement is followed by two arguments I and II. Choose which of the argument/s is/are strong: Statement: Should all diesel engines be replaced by electric engines in trains? Arguments: I. Yes, diesel engine causes a lot of pollution. II. No, India does not produce enough electricity to fulfil even the domestic needs.
- A. Neither argument I nor argument II is strong.
- B. Both of the arguments are strong.
- C. Only argument II is strong.
- D. Only argument I is strong. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Only Argument I is strong. Argument I makes a substantive environmental point - diesel engines emit significant pollutants including particulate matter, nitrogen oxides and carbon dioxide, contributing to climate change and air quality degradation, and electrification reduces these emissions. Argument II is weak because while electricity supply is a real concern, reasoning to reject electric trains by reference to general domestic electricity shortages oversimplifies the issue; the Indian Railways' electrification programme demonstrates that incremental rail electrification is feasible and broader generation capacity continues to grow.
- Q81
A statement is followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption/s is/are implicit in the given statement: Statement: If it does not rain throughout this month, most of the farmers would be in trouble this year. Assumptions: I. Timely rain is essential for farming. II. Most of the farmers are generally dependent on rains.
- A. Neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit.
- B. Both of the assumptions are implicit. ✓ Correct
- C. Only assumption II is implicit.
- D. Only assumption I is implicit.
Answer: B
Show explanation
Both assumptions are implicit in the statement. Assumption I, that timely rain is essential for farming, is implicit because the statement directly links absence of rain to farmer trouble, suggesting rain is necessary for cultivation. Assumption II, that most farmers are generally dependent on rains, is also implicit because the conclusion that most farmers will be in trouble logically follows only if most of them depend on rainfall (rather than on irrigation alone). The statement therefore presupposes both that rain is essential and that farming in question is rain-dependent.
- Q82
Study the given statement then decide which of the suggested course of action follows logically: Statement: The meteorological department has issued a notification forecasting less rainfall during next year's monsoon. Course of Action: I. The government should make arguments to provide water to the affected areas. II. The farmers should be advised to be ready for the eventuality.
- A. Neither I nor II follows.
- B. Both I and II follow. ✓ Correct
- C. Only II follows.
- D. Only I follows.
Answer: B
Show explanation
Both courses of action follow logically. Given a forecast of less rainfall, Course of Action I - the government making arrangements to provide water to affected areas - is appropriate because pre-emptive water supply planning helps prevent drought-related distress. Course of Action II - advising farmers to be ready for the eventuality - is also logical, since informed farmers can plan crop choices, insurance coverage and water management strategies in advance. Both actions reflect responsible administrative and advisory responses to a credible meteorological forecast about reduced rainfall.
- Q83
A statement is followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions and decide which of them logically follows: Statement: After joining, Municipal Commissioner told to people of city 'A' - 'My first and foremost task is to beautify this city like Indore.' Conclusions: I. The people of city 'A' are not aware about the present condition of the city. II. The Commissioner has worked in Indore and has good experience of beautifying cities.
- A. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. ✓ Correct
- B. Both of the conclusions follow.
- C. Only conclusion II follows.
- D. Only conclusion I follows.
Answer: A
Show explanation
Neither conclusion follows from the statement. The Commissioner saying that beautifying the city like Indore is his first task does not imply that the residents of city A are unaware of the present condition of their city - they may be very aware indeed. Nor does it follow that the Commissioner has worked in Indore or has experience beautifying cities; merely citing Indore as a benchmark of cleanliness or beauty is a comparative aspiration, not a claim of personal experience. Both conclusions go beyond what the statement strictly supports.
- Q84
Next term of the following sequence is: A^(3/2), B_2, C^(9/2), F_18, E^(15/2), J_50, G^(21/2), N_98, ?
- A. H^(29/2) S_172
- B. H^(27/2) R_182
- C. I^(27/2) R_162 ✓ Correct
- D. I^(29/2) R_172
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q85
In a certain code language, ABONDONMENT is written as DNOBAOTNEMN and ESTABLISHED is written as BATSELDEHSI. Then in the same code language, GERMINATION will be written as
- A. NMEGRONTIAG
- B. GOERGONITAN
- C. IMERGNONITA
- D. IMREGNNOITA ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q86
A family has eight members. E is the mother of F and G. A is the son-in-law of E. C is the daughter of G. D is the maternal grandfather of C. D has one son and one daughter. H is the sister-in-law of G. B is the niece of F. How is F related to A?
- A. Sister-in-law
- B. Sister
- C. Brother-in-law
- D. Brother
Explanation coming soon.
- Q87
Five girls are standing in a ground at a certain distance. Rekha and Beena are 18 m apart from each other. Veena is standing somewhere in the mid of Rekha and Beena. Pinky is standing 5 m North to Rekha. Rekha is 12 m West to Veena. Yamini is standing 8 m South to Beena. What is the shortest distance between Pinky and Yamini?
- A. 33 m
- B. 31 m
- C. 23 m
- D. 13 m ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q88
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a row. T and U have one person in between them. V is immediate right to U. P is immediate left to U. There is one person between S and P. S is not the neighbour of V. V and U have two persons between them. R is immediate left to P. Which person is sitting exactly in the middle of the row?
- A. Q
- B. T
- C. P
- D. V ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q89
Images of consonants of the capital English alphabets are observed in a mirror. What is the number of images of these which look like their original shapes?
- A. 11
- B. 9
- C. 7 ✓ Correct
- D. 5
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q90
A solid cube has been formed with 64 smaller cubes. How many smaller cubes will not be visible in any condition?
- A. 8 ✓ Correct
- B. 6
- C. 4
- D. 2
Answer: A
Show explanation
A solid cube formed of 64 smaller cubes has dimensions 4x4x4. The cubes that are not visible from any face are the inner cubes that lie completely within the outer shell. The inner core of a 4x4x4 cube has dimensions (4-2)x(4-2)x(4-2) = 2x2x2 = 8 cubes. These 8 cubes are surrounded on all sides by other cubes and have no face exposed to the outside, so they cannot be seen from any direction. Therefore the answer is 8.
- Q91
Three students A, B and C of a school receive cash prize in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 in a competition. Then the school principal gives Rs. 4,000 to each student. As a result now the cash prize of A, B and C becomes in the ratio 5 : 6 : 7. How much did B get in the competition?
- A. Rs. 12,000
- B. Rs. 10,000
- C. Rs. 8,000 ✓ Correct
- D. Rs. 6,000
Answer: C
Show explanation
Let the original prizes be 3x, 4x and 5x. After Rs. 4,000 is added to each, the new amounts are (3x+4000), (4x+4000) and (5x+4000), which are in ratio 5:6:7. From (3x+4000)/(4x+4000) = 5/6, cross-multiplying gives 18x+24000 = 20x+20000, so 2x = 4000, x = 2000. Therefore B's original prize was 4x = 4 × 2000 = Rs. 8,000. Verification: 6,000 : 8,000 : 10,000 after adding 4,000 each becomes 10,000 : 12,000 : 14,000 = 5:6:7. Confirmed B = Rs. 8,000.
- Q92
A student multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3. What is the percentage error in the calculation?
- A. 64% ✓ Correct
- B. 54%
- C. 44%
- D. 34%
Answer: A
Show explanation
Let the number be x. The correct multiplication gives (5/3)x and the incorrect multiplication gives (3/5)x. The error is (5/3)x - (3/5)x = (25/15 - 9/15)x = (16/15)x. Percentage error relative to the correct value (5/3)x is [(16/15)x / (5/3)x] × 100 = [(16/15) × (3/5)] × 100 = (48/75) × 100 = 64%. Therefore the percentage error in the calculation is 64 percent, which corresponds to option (a).
- Q93
In a group of 400 boys, each boy plays atleast one of the games cricket, hockey and football. 185 play cricket, 165 play hockey and 160 play football. 40 boys play only cricket and football. 20 boys play only hockey and cricket. 10 boys play only hockey and football. How many boys play all the three games?
- A. 20 ✓ Correct
- B. 18
- C. 15
- D. 10
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q94
If S represents the area of a square inscribed in a circle and T represents the area of an equilateral triangle inscribed in the same circle, then which of the following is correct?
- A. 3√3 T = 8 S
- B. 3√3 T = 4 S
- C. 4 T = 3√3 S
- D. 8 T = 3√3 S ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
For a circle of radius r, the area of the inscribed square (S) has diagonal 2r, so side = r√2 and S = 2r². The area of the inscribed equilateral triangle (T) inscribed in a circle of radius r is given by T = (3√3/4) × r². Computing the ratio: T/S = (3√3/4)r² / 2r² = 3√3/8. Therefore 8T = 3√3 × S, i.e., 3√3 S = 8 T, which corresponds to option (d). This relates the areas of the two regular figures inscribed in the same circle.
- Q95
Following table shows runs scored by four batsmen in both innings of a test match. Who is the fastest run scorer in the test match? Batsman | First Inning Runs/Balls | Second Inning Runs/Balls — P: 79/91, 56/154; Q: 05/12, 50/85; R: 14/76, 61/99; S: 37/50, 13/55.
- A. P
- B. Q ✓ Correct
- C. R
- D. S
Answer: B
Show explanation
Strike rate (runs per ball) is computed across both innings combined. P: total runs (79+56)=135 in (91+154)=245 balls = 55.10. Q: (5+50)=55 in (12+85)=97 = 56.70. R: (14+61)=75 in (76+99)=175 = 42.86. S: (37+13)=50 in (50+55)=105 = 47.62. The highest strike rate is Q at approximately 56.70 runs per 100 balls, making Q the fastest run scorer. Therefore the correct option is (b) Q.
- Q96
If the median A and mode B of following distribution satisfy the relation 7(B - A) = 9C, then find the value of C: Class: 0-30, 30-60, 60-90, 90-120; Frequency: 4, 5, 7, 4.
- A. 9
- B. 8
- C. 7
- D. 6 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q97
2/3 of a principal amount is deposited in the bank at compound interest at the rate of 10% per annum and rest of the principal amount is deposited in the post office at the simple interest rate of 15% per annum. If the difference between compound interest and simple interest for two years be Rs. 480, then total principal amount is equal to
- A. Rs. 16,000
- B. Rs. 12,000 ✓ Correct
- C. Rs. 10,000
- D. Rs. 8,000
Answer: B
Show explanation
Let total principal be P. Bank deposit = (2P/3) at 10% CI; Post office = (P/3) at 15% SI for 2 years. CI on (2P/3) for 2 years at 10% = (2P/3) × [(1.10)² - 1] = (2P/3) × 0.21 = 0.14P. SI on (P/3) for 2 years at 15% = (P/3) × 0.30 = 0.10P. Difference between CI and SI = 0.14P - 0.10P = 0.04P. Given difference = Rs. 480, so 0.04P = 480, hence P = Rs. 12,000. Therefore the total principal amount is Rs. 12,000.
- Q98
Find the probability that the product of four numbers is divisible by 5 or 10.
- A. 256/369
- B. 369/625 ✓ Correct
- C. 273/2500
- D. 256/625
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q99
As per a notification issued recently by the Department of Forest, Environment and Climate Change of Rajasthan, how many wet-lands are there in the State?
- A. 50
- B. 44 ✓ Correct
- C. 38
- D. 30
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q100
Where will the 'Artificial Intelligence of Things Innovation Hub' be established in Rajasthan?
- A. Kota
- B. Bikaner
- C. Jodhpur ✓ Correct
- D. Jaipur
Answer: C
Show explanation
The 'Artificial Intelligence of Things Innovation Hub' is being established in Jaipur, the capital of Rajasthan. The hub aims to foster innovation in the convergence of artificial intelligence and the Internet of Things, supporting startups, research institutions and industry partners working on smart applications. Jaipur was chosen because of its strong existing IT ecosystem, presence of leading academic institutions, and the Government of Rajasthan's push to position the city as a technology and innovation hub for emerging digital domains in the state.
- Q101
The National Tiger Conservation Authority has accorded the fifth tiger reserve in Rajasthan at
- A. Sorsan - Banarn reserve
- B. Hamirgarh - Bhilwara reserve
- C. Dholpur - Karauli reserve ✓ Correct
- D. Nagpahar - Ajmer reserve
Answer: C
Show explanation
The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) accorded approval for Rajasthan's fifth tiger reserve as the Dholpur-Karauli Tiger Reserve. The reserve combines forest areas across Dholpur and Karauli districts and is intended to provide a continuous habitat corridor for tigers dispersing from Ranthambore National Park. Rajasthan's existing tiger reserves are Ranthambore, Sariska, Mukundra Hills and Ramgarh Vishdhari, with Dholpur-Karauli making the fifth. The notification supports tiger conservation, anti-poaching efforts and ecological restoration of the Chambal-Aravalli landscape.
- Q102
In which of the following cities India's first 3D printed post office has been inaugurated recently?
- A. Bengaluru ✓ Correct
- B. Kolkata
- C. New Delhi
- D. Mumbai
Answer: A
Show explanation
India's first 3D printed post office was inaugurated in Bengaluru, Karnataka, in August 2023. Located in Cambridge Layout, the building was constructed using 3D concrete printing technology in just 43 days by Larsen and Toubro in collaboration with IIT Madras and the Department of Posts. It is a 1,021 square foot facility and demonstrated the potential of 3D printing technology for rapid, sustainable construction of public buildings. Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw inaugurated it, marking a milestone in additive construction in India.
- Q103
'm' men and 'n' women are to be seated in a row so that no two women sit together. If m > n, then number of ways in which they can be seated, is
- A. |m |m-1| / |m-n+1|
- B. |m-1| |m+1| / |n| |n-1|
- C. |m| |m+1| / |m-n+1| ✓ Correct
- D. |m| |m-1| / |m-n-1|
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q104
Which of the following institutions launched a centralised Web Portal 'UDGAM' recently?
- A. University Grants Commission
- B. The National Highways Authority of India
- C. Indian Space Research Organisation
- D. The Reserve Bank of India ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Reserve Bank of India launched the centralised web portal 'UDGAM' (Unclaimed Deposits Gateway to Access inforMation) in August 2023. The portal enables members of the public to search for their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks at one place. It was developed by the RBI in collaboration with Reserve Bank Information Technology Pvt. Ltd. (ReBIT), Indian Financial Technology and Allied Services (IFTAS) and participating banks. UDGAM allows depositors or their nominees to easily identify accounts and reclaim funds that have remained inactive for ten years or more.
- Q105
Read the following statements carefully: Statement 1: According to TIME Magazine, S.S. Rajamouli has been named among the top 'Pioneers' of 2023, while Shahrukh Khan has been named among the top 'Icons' of 2023. Statement 2: The TIME Magazine's 100 most influential people list has been divided into six major categories - Leader, Titan, Pioneer, Artist, Icon and Innovator. Select the correct option among the following:
- A. Statements 1 and 2 both are true. ✓ Correct
- B. Statements 1 and 2 both are false.
- C. Only statement 2 is true.
- D. Only statement 1 is true.
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q106
United Nation's General Assembly has recently elected Dennis Francis to serve as President of its 78th session. He belongs to which of the following countries?
- A. Uganda
- B. Brazil
- C. Chile
- D. Trinidad and Tobago ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Dennis Francis was elected by the United Nations General Assembly to serve as President of its 78th session in 2023. He is from Trinidad and Tobago, where he had served as a senior diplomat including stints as Permanent Representative to the United Nations. The 78th session of the UNGA convened in September 2023, with Francis presiding over its high-level debates and major thematic events focused on accelerating the Sustainable Development Goals, climate action and global security. He emphasised peace, prosperity, progress and sustainability as priorities.
- Q107
In July 2023, a new variety of urea was launched by the Prime Minister of India at Sikar, Rajasthan. What is the name of this new variety of urea?
- A. Urea Silver
- B. Urea Gold ✓ Correct
- C. Urea Platinum
- D. Urea Diamond
Answer: B
Show explanation
In July 2023, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched a new variety of urea named 'Urea Gold' at Sikar, Rajasthan. Urea Gold is a sulphur-coated urea variety that addresses sulphur deficiency in soil while also providing nitrogen, the primary nutrient delivered by traditional urea. It is more efficient than conventional urea, releasing nitrogen slowly and reducing fertiliser consumption while improving yields. The launch was part of broader initiatives to promote balanced fertilisation, sustainable agriculture and reduction of urea subsidies through enhanced nutrient-use efficiency.
- Q108
To identify practical applications of artificial intelligence, 'AI for Good Global Summit 2023' was recently held in which of the following countries?
- A. Switzerland ✓ Correct
- B. Japan
- C. China
- D. United States of America
Answer: A
Show explanation
The 'AI for Good Global Summit 2023' was held in Geneva, Switzerland in July 2023. Organised by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) in partnership with 40 UN sister agencies and co-convened with the Government of Switzerland, the summit aimed to identify practical applications of artificial intelligence and to scale solutions for global impact, particularly aligned with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals. It featured discussions on AI governance, ethics, healthcare applications and inclusive technological development across emerging economies.
- Q109
Which of the following personalities has been nominated for the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar 2023 for the Rajasthani language?
- A. Devilal Mahiya ✓ Correct
- B. Dr. Ramkumar Ghotad
- C. Badri Narayan
- D. Atul Chaturvedi
Answer: A
Show explanation
Devilal Mahiya was nominated for the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar 2023 for the Rajasthani language. The Yuva Puraskar is awarded annually by the Sahitya Akademi to writers under the age of 35 for outstanding works in 24 recognised Indian languages. Mahiya's work in Rajasthani literature was recognised for its contribution to contemporary Rajasthani writing. The award includes a citation, a memento and a cash prize, and is intended to encourage younger writers to enrich India's diverse literary traditions.
- Q110
India's first ever outdoor Museum 'Shaheedi Park' has been recently inaugurated in which city?
- A. Srinagar
- B. Prayagraj
- C. Delhi ✓ Correct
- D. Chandigarh
Answer: C
Show explanation
India's first ever outdoor museum 'Shaheedi Park' was inaugurated in Delhi in August 2023. Located in the ITO area, the park was established by the Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD) and dedicated to the memory of freedom fighters and martyrs of India. It features sculptures, installations and depictions narrating major events from India's independence movement, from 1857 onwards through the Quit India Movement. The park serves as both a tribute and an educational space, allowing visitors to engage with the country's freedom struggle in an open-air format.
- Q111
Recently the Ecuadorians have made a historic decision by rejecting oil drilling by a referendum in which of the following biodiverse regions of Amazon?
- A. Manu National Park
- B. Jau National Park
- C. Yasuni National Park ✓ Correct
- D. Tumucumaque National Park
Answer: C
Show explanation
In August 2023, Ecuadorians voted in a historic referendum to halt oil drilling in Yasuni National Park, one of the most biodiverse regions of the Amazon. Yasuni, located in eastern Ecuador, is home to indigenous communities including the uncontacted Tagaeri and Taromenane peoples and harbours an extraordinary range of plant and animal species. The referendum result requires the state oil company Petroecuador to wind down operations in Block 43-ITT within the park, marking a significant victory for environmental and indigenous rights movements globally.
- Q112
Which Ministry is associated with the 'Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar'?
- A. Union Rural Development Ministry
- B. Union Culture Ministry ✓ Correct
- C. Union Science and Technology Ministry
- D. Union Defence Ministry
Answer: B
Show explanation
The 'Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar' (My Village, My Heritage) initiative is associated with the Union Ministry of Culture. Launched as part of the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations, the programme aims to comprehensively document the cultural heritage of all 6.5 lakh villages of India. The initiative captures information related to local arts, crafts, rituals, festivals, oral traditions, food, dress and architectural heritage, creating a national digital archive of village-level cultural assets. The Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) coordinates the implementation.
- Q113
9th 'India Region Conference' of the Common Wealth Parliamentary Association was held in which of the following cities?
- A. Kota
- B. Udaipur ✓ Correct
- C. Jodhpur
- D. Jaipur
Answer: B
Show explanation
The 9th India Region Conference of the Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA) was held in Jaipur, Rajasthan in 2023. The Rajasthan Vidhan Sabha hosted the conference, which brought together presiding officers and members of various legislative assemblies of India and other Commonwealth jurisdictions. The conference deliberated on parliamentary practice, legislative effectiveness and democratic governance. Jaipur, as a heritage city and the capital of Rajasthan, served as a fitting venue, with the proceedings taking place at the State Legislative Assembly building.
- Q114
What position is achieved by India in the medal tally of FISU World University Games 2023?
- A. 7th ✓ Correct
- B. 6th
- C. 5th
- D. 4th
Answer: A
Show explanation
India achieved 7th position in the medal tally of the FISU World University Games 2023, held in Chengdu, China. The Indian contingent secured a record number of medals across multiple disciplines including shooting, archery, badminton and athletics, marking the country's best-ever performance at the University Games. The achievement was attributed to improved sports infrastructure, focused training and broader participation by university-level athletes. The 7th place finish positioned India among the top performers from Asia in the multi-sport event.
- Q115
India defeated Malaysia in the final of Fourth Asian Champions Trophy of Hockey on 12th August, 2023. In which stadium this match was played?
- A. Mayor Radhakrishnan Stadium ✓ Correct
- B. Sree Kanteerava Stadium
- C. M. Chinna Swamy Stadium
- D. Jawahar Lal Nehru Stadium
Answer: A
Show explanation
The 2023 Hero Asian Champions Trophy final, in which India defeated Malaysia on 12 August 2023, was played at the Mayor Radhakrishnan Hockey Stadium in Chennai. India won the final 4-3 and, with that victory, became the most successful team in the tournament's history with four titles. Therefore, option (a) is correct.
- Q116
Rajeshwari Kumari, who stood fifth in the recently held World Championship at Baku, Azerbaijan, has qualified for the Paris Olympics. She is related to which of the following sports?
- A. Shooting ✓ Correct
- B. Archery
- C. Long Jump
- D. Gymnastics
Answer: A
Show explanation
Rajeshwari Kumari, who finished fifth at the World Shooting Championship held in Baku, Azerbaijan, is associated with the sport of shooting. She secured a Paris Olympics quota place for India in the trap shooting event through her performance at the championship. Hailing from Rajasthan, Rajeshwari Kumari is among India's leading trap shooters. Her qualification added to India's growing roster of Olympic qualifiers in shooting disciplines, building on India's strong historical performance in shotgun and rifle events at international competitions.
- Q117
India's Kamaljeet clinched Gold Medal on 24th July, 2023 in Men's individual 50 metre Pistol Event at ISSF Junior Shooting World Championship 2023. In which of the following countries was the event held?
- A. France
- B. Nepal
- C. Canada
- D. South Korea ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
India's Kamaljeet won the Gold Medal in the Men's Individual 50m Pistol event at the ISSF Junior Shooting World Championship 2023, held in South Korea. The championship took place at the Changwon International Shooting Centre, the same venue that has hosted senior ISSF events. Kamaljeet's gold contributed to India's strong overall medal tally at the junior championship, reflecting the depth of emerging shooting talent in the country. India has consistently performed well at junior international shooting events, building a pipeline for senior international and Olympic competition.
- Q118
Recently C.A. Bhavani Devi of India won a Bronze Medal in the Asian Fencing Championship. She lost to player of which country in the Semi-final?
- A. UAE
- B. Egypt
- C. Uzbekistan ✓ Correct
- D. Japan
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q119
Which institution in India has been selected for Gandhi Peace Award 2021?
- A. Geeta press, Gorakhpur ✓ Correct
- B. Sulabh International
- C. Vivekanand Kendra, Kanyakumari
- D. Ram Krishna Mission
Answer: A
Show explanation
Geeta Press, Gorakhpur was selected for the Gandhi Peace Prize 2021. The award, instituted by the Government of India in 1995 to commemorate Mahatma Gandhi's 125th birth anniversary, recognises outstanding contributions towards social, economic and political transformation through non-violence and other Gandhian methods. Geeta Press, established in 1923, has been a major publisher of Hindu religious texts including the Bhagavad Gita, Ramayana and other devotional literature in multiple Indian languages, distributing them at affordable prices for almost a century.
- Q120
In the excavation of which of the following ancient site the huge collection of iron materials is found related to Malava Republic?
- A. Nagar (Nainwan)
- B. Nagari (Madhyamika)
- C. Sambhar
- D. Rairh (Tonk) ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The correct answer is Rairh (Tonk). The official RPSC final key for Q120 marks option 4, which corresponds to Rairh (Tonk) in the question paper. The earlier detailed excavation claims should not be relied on here without an allowed archaeology source.
- Q121
The brave Chauhan ruler of Ajmer who conquered Delhi and annexed it in his kingdom was -
- A. Vigraharaj IV ✓ Correct
- B. Arnoraj
- C. Ajayaraj
- D. Prithviraj III
Answer: A
Show explanation
Vigraharaj IV (also known as Visaldev), the Chauhan ruler of Ajmer who reigned around 1150-1164 CE, conquered Delhi and annexed it to his kingdom. He defeated the Tomara ruler and brought Dhillika (Delhi) under Chauhan control. Vigraharaj IV was a powerful and learned king who composed the Sanskrit drama 'Harikeli Nataka', and during whose reign the renowned Sanskrit scholar Somadeva flourished and wrote 'Lalita Vigraharaja Nataka' in his honour. His conquest of Delhi paved the way for the later Chauhan presence at Delhi under Prithviraj III.
- Q122
The Arab traveller Suleman visited India in the reign of Pratihara king -
- A. Nagbhatt II
- B. Nagbhatt I
- C. Vatsraj
- D. Bhoj I ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Arab traveller Suleman visited India around 851 CE during the reign of the Pratihara king Bhoja I (also known as Mihira Bhoja). In his travel account, Suleman described the Pratihara kingdom as having one of the strongest cavalries in India and gave glowing descriptions of the king's wealth, military strength and just rule. He referred to the kingdom as 'Jurz' and the king as 'Bawra' (a corruption of Bhoja). Suleman's account is one of the most important non-Indian sources for understanding the political and economic conditions of 9th-century northern India.
- Q123
With which of the following Prajamandal Movement Kanhaiya Lal Mittal, Mangilal Bavya and Makbul Alam were associated?
- A. Jhalawar Rajya Praja Mandal ✓ Correct
- B. Banswara Rajya Praja Mandal
- C. Bundi Rajya Praja Mandal
- D. Karauli Rajya Praja Mandal
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q124
When Matsya Sangh was merged into Vrihat Rajasthan?
- A. 18th April, 1948
- B. 25th January, 1950
- C. 30th March, 1949
- D. 15th May, 1949 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Matsya Sangh was merged into Vrihat Rajasthan on 15 May 1949. Formed on 18 March 1948, it included Alwar, Bharatpur, Dholpur and Karauli with Alwar as its capital. The merger of Matsya Sangh with Vrihat Rajasthan represented the fifth stage in Rajasthan's integration. The sixth stage involved Sirohi on 26 January 1950, and the seventh stage completed reorganised Rajasthan on 1 November 1956. Therefore, option (d), 15 May 1949, is correct.
- Q125
In which Rajput Thikana Moti Lal Tejawat was working on the post of Kamdar prior to launching the Aki Movement?
- A. Jharol
- B. Salumbar
- C. Kothariya
- D. Devgarh
Explanation coming soon.
- Q126
What is the similarity between Jharol (Udaipur), Kurada (Nagore) and Sabania (Bikaner)?
- A. Centre of Chalcolithic culture
- B. Centre of Palaeolithic age
- C. Minor stone implements found
- D. Storehouse of copper implements ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Jharol (Udaipur), Kurada (Nagaur) and Sabania (Bikaner) are grouped together in this RPSC item as storehouses of copper implements. That points to option (d), not merely the broader label of Chalcolithic culture. Copper tools are a key marker of Rajasthan's Chalcolithic archaeological horizon, so option (d) is the best match among the stored choices.
- Q127
The renowned artist Muhammed Shah was a court artist (Painter) of which Maharaja of Jaipur?
- A. Sawai Ram Singh II
- B. Sawai Jagat Singh
- C. Sawai Pratap Singh
- D. Sawai Jai Singh ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Muhammad Shah was associated with the atelier of Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh of Jaipur. NCERT's account of the Jaipur School says Sawai Jai Singh (1699-1743) reorganised the Suratkhana and that portrait painter Sahibram was part of his atelier; Muhammad Shah was another artist. Therefore the correct option is (d) Sawai Jai Singh.
- Q128
The men of which sect of Rajasthan perform the Agni Dance (Fire dance)?
- A. Bishnoi Sect
- B. Ramsnehi Sect
- C. Jasnathi Siddha ✓ Correct
- D. Dadupanth
Answer: C
Show explanation
The men of the Jasnathi sect of Rajasthan perform the Agni Dance (Fire Dance). The Jasnathis are followers of Sant Jasnath, a 15th-century saint of the Bishnoi-related tradition based at Katriasar village in Bikaner district. Their distinctive Agni Nritya is performed at night to the rhythm of devotional songs, with male performers dancing on a bed of burning coals as a demonstration of devotional intensity. The dance is often performed at the annual fair at Katriasar and on the death anniversary of Jasnathji, and it has become an emblematic folk tradition of western Rajasthan.
- Q129
The names of how many local dialects are mentioned in the Katha collection called Kuvlayamala?
- A. 18 ✓ Correct
- B. 17
- C. 16
- D. 15
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Katha collection 'Kuvalayamala', composed in 779 CE by Acharya Udyotansuri at Jalore, mentions the names of 18 local dialects (deshi bhashas). The text is an important Prakrit literary work and a primary source for understanding the linguistic and cultural diversity of early medieval India. The 18 dialects mentioned reflect the wide spread of regional speech communities in 8th-century western India. Kuvalayamala, written in mixed Prakrit and Apabhramsha, also references contemporary social customs, traditions and the multicultural milieu of the Gurjara-Pratihara realm.
- Q130
The author of 'Achaldas Khichi re Vachanika' is
- A. Gopaldan Kaviya
- B. Kesari Singh Barahat
- C. Ram Nath Kaviya
- D. Charan Shivdas ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q131
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
- A. Ramdevji - Ramdevra
- B. Mallinathji - Gagron ✓ Correct
- C. Tejaji - Kharnal
- D. Pabuji - Kolu
Answer: B
Show explanation
The wrongly matched pair is Mallinathji - Gagron. Mallinathji, a 14th-century Rajput hero of the Rathore clan, is associated with Tilwara in Barmer district, where the Mallinath Cattle Fair is held annually in his memory, not with Gagron (which is the historic fort site in Jhalawar district associated with the Khichi Chauhans). The other matches are correct: Ramdevji is associated with Ramdevra (Runicha) in Jaisalmer; Tejaji is associated with Kharnal in Nagaur; Pabuji is associated with Kolu (Kolumand) in Phalodi/Jodhpur. These are the major folk deities of Rajasthan.
- Q132
The Chandrabhaga fair is held every year in the month of Kartik at -
- A. Bundi
- B. Banswara
- C. Dungarpur
- D. Jhalrapatan ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Chandrabhaga Fair is held every year in the month of Kartik (October-November) at Jhalrapatan in Jhalawar district of Rajasthan. The fair takes place on the banks of the Chandrabhaga River, with thousands of devotees gathering to take a holy dip on Kartik Purnima. It is one of the largest cattle fairs in Rajasthan, where camels, cows, buffaloes, horses and bullocks are traded. The town of Jhalrapatan, known as the City of Bells for its many temples, hosts religious congregations, cultural performances and a vibrant local market during the fair.
- Q133
Which of the following fort of Rajasthan is not a Giri Fort?
- A. Gagron Fort ✓ Correct
- B. Jalore Fort
- C. Chittorgarh Fort
- D. Siwana Fort
Answer: A
Show explanation
The official RPSC final key treats Gagron Fort as the non-Giri option in this question. In the traditional fort-classification context, Gagron is chiefly noted for Jal-Durg features because it is protected by water on multiple sides, though Rajasthan Tourism also describes it as having both hill and water-fort features. Jalore, Chittorgarh and Siwana are clearer hill-fort examples. Therefore, for this PYQ, option (a), Gagron Fort, is the keyed answer without denying its hill-fort association.
- Q134
Who among the following discovered 'Surkotda', a site of Harappan culture?
- A. B.B. Lal
- B. S.R. Rao
- C. Y.D. Sharma
- D. Jagatpati Joshi ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Surkotada, a Harappan culture site located in the Kutch district of Gujarat, was discovered by Jagatpati Joshi of the Archaeological Survey of India in 1964 and excavated between 1971 and 1972. The site is particularly significant for yielding the first archaeologically attested remains of the horse from a Harappan context, alongside fortifications, citadel architecture and burial evidence. Surkotada represents a late Harappan settlement and provides important data on the spread and decline of the Indus Valley Civilisation in the western coastal regions during the late third and early second millennium BCE.
- Q135
In which dynasty did Chandragupta II marry his daughter Prabhavati and strengthened his position?
- A. Lichchhvi Dynasty
- B. Kadamb Dynasty
- C. Vakataka Dynasty ✓ Correct
- D. Naga Dynasty
Answer: C
Show explanation
Chandragupta II of the Gupta dynasty married his daughter Prabhavati Gupta to Rudrasena II of the Vakataka dynasty, thereby strengthening his political position in central India. After Rudrasena II's early death, Prabhavati ruled as regent for her sons, effectively aligning the Vakataka realm with Gupta interests. This matrimonial alliance proved strategically valuable for Chandragupta II's campaign against the Western Kshatrapas of Saurashtra and Gujarat, since the Vakataka territory provided a secure southern flank. The alliance is well-documented in inscriptions and coins of the early 5th century CE.
- Q136
The Stupa of Bharhut is a fine example of -
- A. Chola architecture
- B. Kushan architecture
- C. Gupta architecture
- D. Shunga architecture ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Stupa of Bharhut, located in Madhya Pradesh, is a fine example of Shunga architecture. Built around the 2nd century BCE during the Shunga period, the stupa originally featured a stone railing and gateways (toranas) with elaborate sculptural reliefs depicting Jataka tales, scenes from the life of the Buddha and floral motifs. Many of the surviving Bharhut sculptures are housed in the Indian Museum at Kolkata. The Bharhut sculptures, along with those at Sanchi, are among the earliest surviving examples of Buddhist narrative art in India.
- Q137
The author of 'Lalit Vigraharaj' drama was -
- A. Hemchandra
- B. Kalhan
- C. Somdeva ✓ Correct
- D. Mahesh
Answer: C
Show explanation
The author of the drama 'Lalita Vigraharaja' was Somadeva, a Sanskrit poet at the court of Chauhan king Vigraharaj IV (Visaldev) of Ajmer in the mid-12th century. The drama, composed in praise of Vigraharaj IV, was inscribed on stone slabs that were later used in the construction of the Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra mosque in Ajmer. Fragments of the inscribed slabs survive and are an important source of medieval Sanskrit drama and Chauhan history. Somadeva should not be confused with Somadeva of Kashmir who composed the Kathasaritsagara.
- Q138
Which of the following poet was given the title of 'Andhra Kavita Pitamah' by Krishnadev Ray?
- A. Allasani Peddana ✓ Correct
- B. Bhattumurti
- C. Tenali Ramkrishana
- D. Pingli Suranna
Answer: A
Show explanation
Allasani Peddana was conferred the title of 'Andhra Kavita Pitamaha' (Grandfather of Telugu Poetry) by Krishnadeva Raya, the renowned ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire (r. 1509-1529). Peddana was the foremost among the Ashtadiggajas - the eight great poets of Krishnadeva Raya's court - and authored the celebrated Telugu poem 'Manucharitra'. His mastery of Sanskrit and Telugu, along with his pioneering role in the prabandha style of Telugu literature, earned him this lofty epithet. Krishnadeva Raya himself was an accomplished Telugu and Sanskrit poet, composing the Amuktamalyada.
- Q139
In which of the following palace built by Akbar in Fatehpur Sikri the Buddhist architecture was followed?
- A. Shaikh Salim Chisti's Tomb
- B. Buland Darwaja
- C. Panch Mahal ✓ Correct
- D. Turki Sultana's palace
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Panch Mahal at Fatehpur Sikri, built by Akbar, follows Buddhist architectural principles. The structure is a five-storey pavilion with each successive level smaller than the one below, supported by ornately carved columns and resembling Buddhist Vihara architecture. The diminishing storeys are reminiscent of certain Buddhist monastic buildings and the layered terraced design seen in Buddhist constructions. The Panch Mahal served as a recreational pavilion for the women of Akbar's court. Other structures at Fatehpur Sikri reflect a syncretic blend of Hindu, Jain, Persian and Islamic architectural elements.
- Q140
Who was appointed first Raj Pramukh of Rajasthan?
- A. Maharaja Umed Singh of Jodhpur
- B. Maharaja Karni Singh of Bikaner
- C. Maharaja Sawai Man Singh II of Jaipur ✓ Correct
- D. Maharana Bhagwat Singh of Udaipur
Answer: C
Show explanation
Maharaja Sawai Man Singh II of Jaipur was appointed as the first Rajpramukh of Rajasthan when the Greater Rajasthan Union (Vrihat Rajasthan) was formed on 30 March 1949. As Rajpramukh, he served as the constitutional head of the integrated state until the post was abolished following the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission and effective from 1 November 1956. Maharana Bhupal Singh of Udaipur was made Maharajpramukh, and Sawai Man Singh II's appointment as Rajpramukh marked the formal political integration of the major Rajput princely states into a unified Rajasthan.
- Q141
Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded Servants of India Society in the year
- A. 1907
- B. 1906
- C. 1904
- D. 1905 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in 1905, with the aim of training young Indians for selfless service to the nation through constitutional and constructive work. Headquartered in Pune, the Society undertook activities in education, social reform, famine relief and cooperative movements. Members took a vow to live simply and dedicate themselves to public service. Gokhale, a moderate leader of the Indian National Congress and mentor to Mahatma Gandhi, viewed the Society as a means of building moral and capable national leadership during the colonial period.
- Q142 · Indian History (Modern)
Who was the President of the special session of Indian National Congress held in Calcutta in September, 1920 in which the resolution of Non-Cooperation Movement was passed?
- A. Dadabhai Naoroji
- B. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
- C. Lala Lajpat Rai ✓ Correct
- D. Vijaya Raghavachari
Answer: C
Show explanation
Lala Lajpat Rai presided over the special session of the Indian National Congress held at Calcutta from 4 to 9 September 1920. This was the session where the Non-Cooperation resolution was moved and debated before the movement was adopted by the Congress. Therefore, among the given options, the correct answer is Lala Lajpat Rai.
- Q143
Which of the following were the members of State Reorganisation Commission formed by the Indian Government in December, 1953? (i) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru (ii) Justice Fazal Ali (iii) K.M. Panikkar (iv) H.N. Kunzru. Select the correct answer by using the code given below:
- A. (ii) and (iii)
- B. (ii) and (iv)
- C. (ii), (iii) and (iv) ✓ Correct
- D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: C
Show explanation
The State Reorganisation Commission, appointed by the Indian Government in December 1953, comprised three members: Justice Fazal Ali (Chairman), K.M. Panikkar and Hridayanath Kunzru. The Commission submitted its report in 1955, which led to the enactment of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, fundamentally redrawing internal state boundaries on linguistic lines. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru was not a member of this Commission. Therefore the correct option includes only items (ii), (iii) and (iv): Fazal Ali, Panikkar and Kunzru. The Commission's recommendations led to the creation of 14 states and 6 union territories.
- Q144
In which sea do river Elbe and river Rhine drain their water?
- A. North Sea ✓ Correct
- B. Mediterranean Sea
- C. Adriatic Sea
- D. Black Sea
Answer: A
Show explanation
Both the Elbe and the Rhine rivers drain into the North Sea. The Rhine originates in the Swiss Alps, flows through Germany and the Netherlands, and empties into the North Sea via a delta near Rotterdam. The Elbe rises in the Krkonose Mountains of the Czech Republic, flows through Germany and discharges into the North Sea at Cuxhaven near Hamburg. Both rivers are major navigable waterways of central and northwestern Europe and have been historically important for trade, industrial transport and the development of port cities such as Hamburg, Rotterdam and Bremen.
- Q145
The spread of which of the following Sufi sect was mostly limited to Sindh, Multan and Punjab?
- A. Qadiri
- B. Naqshbandi
- C. Suhrawardi ✓ Correct
- D. Chisti
Answer: C
Show explanation
The spread of the Suhrawardi Sufi order was largely confined to Sindh, Multan and Punjab in the Indian subcontinent. Established by Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya (1182-1262) at Multan, the order maintained close ties with the political establishment, accepted royal patronage and held property, distinguishing it from the Chishti order which generally avoided rulers. Prominent Suhrawardi saints included Sadruddin Arif, Ruknuddin Abu'l Fath and others based primarily in the western regions. The order remained influential in the western parts of the subcontinent through the medieval period.
- Q146
The problem of desertification is least in which of the following continents?
- A. Europe ✓ Correct
- B. Australia
- C. Asia
- D. Africa
Answer: A
Show explanation
The problem of desertification is least in Europe among the listed continents. Desertification is most severe in Africa (the Sahel and Kalahari), large in Asia (Gobi, Thar, Arabian deserts and the central Asian steppes), and significant in Australia, where much of the interior is arid. Europe, with its temperate climate, abundant precipitation, dense river networks and extensive forest cover, has the lowest extent and severity of desertification, although parts of southern Spain, Italy and the Balkans face localised desertification risks linked to drought and unsustainable land use practices.
- Q147
Consider the following statements: A. The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for 'Karewa' formations. B. Nalagarh Dun is the largest of all Duns. C. Namcha Barwa mountain peak is located in Arunachal Himalayas. D. 'Valley of Flowers' is situated in Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas. Code:
- A. A, B, C and D are correct.
- B. B and C are correct.
- C. A, B and D are correct. ✓ Correct
- D. A, B and C are correct.
Answer: C
Show explanation
Statements A, C and D are correct, while B is incorrect. The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations. Nalagarh Dun should not be treated as the largest of all Duns, so statement B is wrong. Namcha Barwa is associated with the Arunachal Himalayas, and Valley of Flowers belongs to the Himachal-Uttarakhand Himalayan region stated in the question. Therefore A, C and D are correct - option (c).
- Q148
Which areas of India receive rainfall from North-East Monsoon? A. Tamil Nadu Coast B. Gujarat Coast C. Southern Andhra Pradesh D. South-East Karnataka. Code:
- A. A, B, C & D
- B. A, C & D ✓ Correct
- C. B, C & D
- D. A, B & C
Answer: B
Show explanation
The North-East Monsoon brings rainfall primarily to Tamil Nadu Coast (A), Southern Andhra Pradesh (C) and South-East Karnataka (D), occurring during October-December as the retreating monsoon picks up moisture from the Bay of Bengal. The Gujarat Coast (B) does not receive rainfall from the North-East Monsoon - it receives most of its rain from the South-West Monsoon during June-September. Therefore the correct combination is A, C and D, which corresponds to option (b). The North-East Monsoon is critical for the Coromandel coast's agriculture and water security.
- Q149
Which is not a correct match? Lake - Location in State
- A. Bhim Tal - Uttarakhand
- B. Pulicat - Tamil Nadu
- C. Loktak - Manipur
- D. Roopkund - Himachal Pradesh ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The incorrect match is Roopkund - Himachal Pradesh. Roopkund Lake is actually located in Uttarakhand, not Himachal Pradesh. Roopkund is a high-altitude glacial lake in the Garhwal Himalayas of Chamoli district, Uttarakhand, famous for the hundreds of human skeletons visible at its bed. The other pairings are correct: Bhim Tal is in Uttarakhand, Pulicat Lake straddles the Tamil Nadu-Andhra Pradesh border (mainly Tamil Nadu), and Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in northeast India, located in Manipur and known for its floating phumdis.
- Q150
Among the following which is not an Industrial Region of U.S.A.?
- A. Cincinnati Indianapolis Region
- B. Great Kanhawa Valley Region
- C. Midlands Region ✓ Correct
- D. Michigan Lake Region
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Midlands Region is not an industrial region of the United States of America - it is the major industrial region of the United Kingdom (centred on Birmingham and the Black Country). The other listed regions are all industrial regions of the USA: the Cincinnati-Indianapolis Region in the Midwest, the Great Kanawha Valley Region in West Virginia, and the Michigan Lake Region (Detroit area) which has been a major automobile manufacturing hub. Therefore Midlands Region is the odd one out, being a British rather than American industrial concentration.
