RAS 2018 Prelims — Previous Year Questions with Answers

Both statements are correct. After the Nagpur Session of 1920, presided by C. Vijayaraghavachariar, the Indian National Congress reorganised its Provincial Congress Committees on a linguistic basis to draw common people into the freedom movement and to make agitation more effective at the regional level. In 1948, however, the Dar Commission appointed by the Constituent Assembly advised against forming provinces solely on linguistic lines, and the Congress, through the JVP Committee, formally rejected the immediate demand for linguistic provinces, fearing it would harm national unity soon after Partition.

The official RPSC RAS/RTS 2018 Prelims answer key gives Question 2 as option 1. In the official question paper, option 1 is Bairat. Therefore the correct answer is Bairat, not Rairh; the explanation should not attribute the sixteen Menander coins to Rairh or use the Tonk iron-smelting narrative to justify the answer.

The official RPSC answer key for question 3 marks response 4, which corresponds to Bharatrabhatta-I in the printed paper. Therefore, for this RAS 2018 Prelims item, the ruler treated as not belonging to the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty is Bharatrabhatta-I, option (d).

In the pre-medieval kingdoms of Rajasthan, the designation Naimittika referred to the state astrologer attached to the royal court. The Naimittika was responsible for predicting auspicious moments for coronations, military campaigns, marriages and other royal functions, and for interpreting omens, eclipses and natural events. Such a court astrologer held an honoured place alongside the purohita and ministers, and inscriptions of Rajput-era kingdoms occasionally record grants made to Naimittikas. The post was distinct from the royal bard (Bhat or Charan) and from judicial or medical officers.

Kesari Singh Barhat, the Charan poet and revolutionary of Shahpura, was convicted in connection with the Mahant Pyarelal murder case of 1914. The Mahant of the Sannyasi Ashram in Jaipur was killed by revolutionaries who suspected him of betraying nationalist activities; Barhat, along with his brother Zorawar Singh and others, was implicated. Kesari Singh, already famous for his patriotic Chetawani Ra Chungatya addressed to Maharana Fateh Singh of Mewar, was sentenced to twenty years' imprisonment in Hazaribagh jail. He is remembered as a leading literary and revolutionary figure of Rajasthan.

Charles Metcalfe, the British Resident at Delhi, was instructed by Governor-General Lord Hastings in October 1817 to conclude treaties with the Rajput states. Between December 1817 and December 1818, Metcalfe concluded treaties with the Rajput states, bringing them into alliance with the East India Company under British protection and political control. David Ochterlony later held charge in Rajputana, while Arthur Wellesley and John George do not fit this Rajputana treaty role. Hence option (b), Charles Metcalf, is correct.

On 25 March 1948 the Rajasthan Union was formed by the merger of the south-eastern princely states of Banswara, Bundi, Dungarpur, Jhalawar, Kishangarh, Kota, Pratapgarh, Shahpura and Tonk, with Kota as its initial capital. Udaipur (Mewar) did not join at this stage; it merged a few weeks later, on 18 April 1948, when the United State of Rajasthan was constituted with Udaipur as capital. Bundi, Pratapgarh and Shahpura were all part of the original 25 March union, so the state that was not included on that date is Udaipur.

Tyag Bhumi was a nationalist Hindi monthly journal launched from Ajmer in 1927 by Hari Bhau Upadhyaya, who served as its founder-editor. Closely associated with Mahatma Gandhi and the constructive programme, the journal carried articles on Khadi, the freedom movement, social reform and the Rajputana states' people's struggles. Hari Bhau Upadhyaya was a prominent Gandhian of Rajasthan and later a minister in the Madhya Bharat government. Jai Narayan Vyas, Devi Dutta Tripathi and Rishi Dutt Mehta edited other journals but were not connected with Tyag Bhumi as its founding editor.

The Saatveesh Devari, situated within Chittorgarh Fort, is a Jain temple complex. Its name literally means 'twenty-seven shrines' and refers to the cluster of small Jain devalayas built in the eleventh century during the period of Mewar's Guhila rulers. The temple is dedicated to the Jain Tirthankaras and is an important site for Shvetambara pilgrimage. The Kumbh Shyam temple is dedicated to Lord Vishnu, the Samiddheshwar temple is a Shaiva shrine of the eleventh century rebuilt by Maharana Mokal, and Tulja Bhawani is a Shakta temple within the fort.

The accepted answer is Nanak Ram, option (c). In the court record concerning the RAS/RTS 2018 preliminary answer key, the expert position distinguished Nanag Ram from Nanak Ram and stated that Nanak Ram did not belong to the Alwar School of painting. Jamnadas, Baksaram and Nandram are not the accepted exceptions for this keyed item. Therefore the painter not belonging to the Alwar School is Nanak Ram, making option (c) correct.

Gavari Devi, the celebrated folk singer from Rajasthan, was associated with the Mand singing tradition of Rajasthan. Mand is a classical-folk genre of western Rajasthan known for its lyrical depictions of love, valour and devotion, and made famous by songs like Kesariya Balam Aavo Ni Padharo Mhare Des. Gavari Devi was a leading exponent of this tradition and received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1986 for her contribution. The Langa tradition is a community-based musical lineage, while Talabandi and Thumri belong to other genres.

The woman saint Daya Bai was a disciple of Saint Charandas, the founder of the Charandasi sampradaya in the eighteenth century. Charandas, born at Dehra in Mewat, preached a Vaishnav devotional path with strong ethical and yogic emphasis. His two principal women disciples, Sahjo Bai and Daya Bai, composed devotional poetry in Hindi-Brajbhasha that is preserved as the Daya Bodh and Vinay Malika. Daya Bai is remembered for her verses on bhakti, vairagya and inner discipline, which form an important strand of medieval Rajasthani devotional literature.

Loor is the dance form of the Garasia tribe of southern Rajasthan, performed primarily by women during the Gangaur festival and at marriages. The dancers form circles, sing folk songs in their dialect and move with rhythmic clapping and graceful steps. Gavari is a dance-drama of the Bhils of Mewar, Bam is associated with the Alwar-Bharatpur region, and Terahtali is a sitting dance of the Kamad community of Pokhran performed in honour of Baba Ramdev. Hence Loor is the dance specifically linked with the Garasia community.

Both statements are true. Vijayadan Detha (1926-2013), the celebrated Rajasthani writer popularly called Bijji, wrote the short story Duvidha which Habib Tanvir adapted as the play Charandas Chor and Mani Kaul also filmed under the same title. Detha was likewise a co-founder of Rupayan Sansthan, the Borunda-based institute for Rajasthani folklore and oral traditions, which he established in 1960 along with Komal Kothari. Through this institution he documented thousands of Rajasthani folktales, songs and oral histories. Therefore both statements about Detha are accurate.

The correct match is Elbrus-Russia, Kilimanjaro-Tanzania, Mt. Cook-New Zealand, and McKinley-USA. In the official RPSC paper this code is A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii), and the official key gives response 3. Hence option (c) is correct.

The Alpha index measures mean species diversity within a habitat at a local scale. Coined by Robert H. Whittaker in 1960, alpha diversity counts the number of species and their relative abundance in a single ecological community or sampling site. Beta diversity expresses the change in species composition between habitats, while gamma diversity is total diversity across a large landscape or geographical region. Therefore, alpha is the index that describes biodiversity within an individual habitat, making option (a) the correct answer.

Southern New England is an industrial region of the United States, not the United Kingdom, so this pair is incorrectly matched. The Ruhr valley in Germany is one of Europe's premier coal and steel regions; the Po valley of northern Italy is the heart of Italian manufacturing and agriculture; the Kanto plain around Tokyo is Japan's largest industrial belt. Southern New England, comprising Connecticut, Rhode Island and Massachusetts, developed early American textiles, machinery and electronics industries. Hence option (b) is the incorrect match in the list.

The correct sequence is Kiel-Elbe estuary and Baltic Sea, Soo-Lake Superior and Lake Huron, Panama-Atlantic and Pacific Oceans, Suez-Mediterranean and Red Seas, giving A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i, which is option (a). The Kiel Canal in Germany links the Elbe estuary on the North Sea with the Baltic. The Soo Locks join Lake Superior with Lake Huron via the St Marys River. The Panama Canal cuts through the isthmus of Panama, and the Suez Canal in Egypt connects the Mediterranean with the Red Sea.

Salher (1567 m) is a peak of the Sahyadri range in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra and is not part of the Eastern Ghats. The Eastern Ghats run discontinuously along India's east coast from Odisha to Tamil Nadu and include peaks such as Gali Konda, Sinkram Gutta and Madugula Konda, all in the Visakhapatnam-Araku region of Andhra Pradesh. Mahendragiri and Jindhagada are other notable Eastern Ghats peaks. Salher, by contrast, is the highest fort-peak of the Western Ghats in Nashik district, hence option (b) is the answer.

Masha is not a recognised local name for shifting cultivation in Himachal Pradesh, so this pair is wrongly matched. Pondu (also Podu) is the term for slash-and-burn cultivation among tribal communities of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh; Poonam (or Punam) refers to shifting cultivation in the Western Ghats region of Kerala; Jhum is the well-known term for shifting cultivation among the tribes of Assam and the wider north-east. Himachal Pradesh practises Khil or Kumri locally rather than Masha, making option (b) the incorrect pair.

The official RPSC final answer key marks option (a) for this PYQ. In the printed option set, option (a) matches Community Reserves with 46, National Parks with 103 and Wildlife Sanctuaries with 544. Wildlife Institute of India figures as on 30 June 2018 support 103 National Parks, 544 Wildlife Sanctuaries and 46 Community Reserves, while Conservation Reserves are listed as 77 rather than the 76 printed in the question. Therefore option (a) is retained as the exam-key answer, but the reserve counts should not be reversed.

Bharat Electronics Limited has been collaborating with the Indian Space Research Organisation to manufacture Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) solar cells used to power Indian satellites. BEL set up a dedicated GaAs solar-cell facility at its Bangalore complex in partnership with ISRO's Space Applications Centre, indigenising a strategic component previously imported. Such cells offer higher conversion efficiency than silicon and are critical for spacecraft power systems. The other options (agro technology, nuclear technology, C-DAC) describe areas outside the scope of BEL-ISRO joint work, making option (b) the correct answer.

The Mukundara hills, lying in the Hadoti plateau of south-eastern Rajasthan around Kota and Jhalawar, are an extension of the Vindhyan ranges into the state. They form a flat-topped, table-like escarpment of Vindhyan sandstone and quartzite and host the Mukundara Hills (Darrah) National Park. The Aravalli system, by contrast, includes the Alwar hills and Girwa hills around Udaipur, while the Dora mountain near Banswara also belongs to the Aravalli outliers. Hence the correct answer is option (a), the Mukundara hills.

Sidhmukh project benefits Hanumangarh and Churu, Narmada project in Rajasthan irrigates Jalore and Barmer, Jawai project covers the Pali-Jodhpur-Jalore region and Jakham project benefits Udaipur and Pratapgarh districts. Matching A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii corresponds to option (c). The Sidhmukh canal, an offshoot of Bhakra waters, irrigates fields in Hanumangarh and Churu; the Narmada main canal entering Rajasthan near Sanchore irrigates Jalore and Barmer; Jawai dam on the Jawai river benefits Pali region; and Jakham dam in Pratapgarh supplies tribal areas of Pratapgarh and adjoining Udaipur.

The RPSC key gives response 4 for this question, and statement (A) is the only statement that states the immediate meteorological cause. IMD describes dust-storm activity in north Rajasthan and adjoining plains as mainly convective, with loose dust raised by convective weather. The Aravalli-parallel point is relevant to Rajasthan's broader rainfall pattern, not the May-June dust-storm cause in this item, and fast easterlies are not the standard cause. Therefore only (A) is correct, so option (d) is the answer.

The listed items are real mining-sector instruments or documents, so the intended answer to this previous-year question is option (d), All of these. The Marble Development and Conservation Rules, 2002, Rajasthan Mineral Policy, 2015 and Rajasthan District Mineral Foundation Trust Rules, 2016 are identifiable instruments. The wording "Rajasthan Minor Mineral Concession Rules (amended up to May 2016)" refers to the pre-2017 rule set or document; for current law, the Rajasthan Minor Mineral Concession Rules, 2017 came into force on publication in the Gazette and expressly repealed the 1986 rules, with savings for actions already taken.

Rajasthan is almost the sole producer in India of lead-zinc ores, wollastonite and selenite. It is not the sole producer of copper ores, because important copper production also comes from other states. Therefore statements (A), (C) and (D) are correct, while (B) is not. The correct answer is option (d), (A), (C) and (D).

The Barmer-Sanchore basin, particularly the Mangala, Bhagyam and Aishwarya fields operated by Cairn India (Vedanta) at the Mangala Processing Terminal, accounted for the bulk of Rajasthan's crude oil output during 2017-18. By that year these Rajasthan fields were producing more than one-fifth of India's domestic crude oil. The Bikaner-Nagaur basin yields lignite and small amounts of heavy oil, and the Jaisalmer basin produces gas rather than significant crude. Therefore the maximum crude oil production in 2017-18 came from the Barmer-Sanchore basin, option (c).

According to Census 2011 urban-population figures, India was about 31.16% urban, while Rajasthan was 24.87% urban. The RAS option rounds India's figure as 31.15%, so the correct order for India and Rajasthan respectively is 31.15% and 24.87%. Hence option (d) is correct.

Rajasthan's leading mineral-based industries are zinc smelting (Hindustan Zinc plants at Chanderiya, Debari and Dariba), cement (Birla, Shree, Ambuja and Ultratech plants using Vindhyan limestone), and marble processing (Kishangarh, Rajsamand, Makrana). Electronics is not a mineral-based industry and is comparatively small in the state. Hence statements (A), (B) and (D) are correct while (C) is not, giving option (c) as the answer. The state's abundant limestone, lead-zinc ores and dimensional stone resources underpin its dominance in these mineral-based manufacturing sectors.

Per Census 2011 PCA district data, Bikaner had 7,779 Scheduled Tribe persons in a total population of 2,363,937, and Nagaur had 10,418 Scheduled Tribe persons in a total population of 3,307,743. Their ST shares, about 0.329 per cent and 0.315 per cent respectively, are lower than Ganganagar's 13,477 out of 1,969,168 and Hanumangarh's 14,289 out of 1,774,692. Therefore the correct combination showing the lowest ST percentage among the listed pairs is option (c), Bikaner and Nagaur.

The proposed oil refinery and petrochemical complex at Pachpadra in Barmer is being set up as a joint venture between Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited and the Government of Rajasthan, through HPCL Rajasthan Refinery Limited (HRRL). Under the original 2013 agreement and the revised 2018 agreement, HPCL holds 74 per cent equity and the State Government 26 per cent. The 9-million-tonne-per-annum greenfield refinery is designed to process the heavy waxy crude from the Barmer basin. Hence the correct partners are HPCL and the Government of Rajasthan, option (d).

The mascot of Sawai Madhopur district is the Tiger, not the Lion, because the district hosts Ranthambhore Tiger Reserve. Hence the pair Sawai Madhopur-Lion is incorrectly matched. Bhilwara's mascot is the peacock, Churu's is the black buck (associated with the Tal Chhapar sanctuary), and Jaisalmer's is the Great Indian Bustard (Godawan), the state bird associated with the Desert National Park. Therefore option (c), Sawai Madhopur-Lion, is the wrong match in this question.

The correct code is (A) and (C), so option (c) is correct. The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced the bicameral central legislature with a Legislative Assembly; 1926 was an election to that central body. The 1937 elections were provincial elections under the Government of India Act, 1935, so (B) does not answer a Central Legislative Assembly question. The last colonial general elections of 1945-46 included elections to the Central Legislature before independence. Therefore, in this question the years relevant to the 1919 Central Legislative Assembly framework are 1926 and 1945.

Shriman Narayan Agarwal authored the Gandhian Constitution for Free India, published in 1946 with a foreword by Mahatma Gandhi. The book sketched a decentralised polity built around self-sufficient village panchayats, indirect election to higher tiers and a participatory economic order, reflecting Gandhi's ideas of Gram Swaraj. Aruna Asaf Ali, Achyut Patwardhan and Humayun Kabir were prominent national figures but did not write a constitution titled Gandhian Constitution for Free India. Hence option (c), Shriman Narayan Agarwal, is the correct author.

Statements (A) and (D) are correct. The Constituent Assembly of India was indirectly elected by members of the provincial legislative assemblies (themselves chosen on a limited franchise under the 1935 Act), so it was neither based on adult franchise nor on direct elections, making (A) correct and (B) wrong. It contained Congress, Muslim League, Scheduled Castes Federation, Akali Dal, Hindu Mahasabha and several independents, so it was a multi-party body, refuting (C). The Assembly worked through more than twenty committees, confirming (D). The correct combination is option (a).

The Fifteenth Constitutional Amendment Act, 1963 inserted into Article 124(2A) the proviso that the age of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law provide. The same amendment increased the retirement age of High Court judges from sixty to sixty-two and made several procedural changes relating to the higher judiciary. The Sixteenth, Seventeenth and Eighteenth amendments dealt with oaths, agrarian land laws and reorganisation of states respectively, so option (a) is correct.

The chronological order is A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950), Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967), Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) and Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), which corresponds to (D), (A), (B), (C) and matches option (c). Gopalan first interpreted Articles 19 and 21 narrowly; Golaknath held that fundamental rights cannot be amended; Kesavananda Bharati propounded the basic structure doctrine; Minerva Mills affirmed limits on amending power and balance between fundamental rights and directive principles.

The Swaran Singh Committee on constitutional reforms was announced with A. R. Antulay as secretary and members including Siddhartha Shankar Ray and C. M. Stephen. Haridev Joshi is not in that supported member list. Therefore, among the four names in the question, (A), (B) and (D) were members, making option (c) the correct answer.

For the 2018 RAS paper, the official key treated option (c) as the mismatched pair because Puducherry was then listed separately from Article 240(1)(c). The explanation also needs a current-law caveat: after the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu merger law, Article 240 now carries Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu as a combined entry and no longer keeps Daman and Diu as a separate clause. Thus the stored historical answer remains option (c), with that later amendment noted.

On 25 June 1975, President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed, on the advice of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi's cabinet, issued a proclamation under Article 352 declaring that a grave emergency existed whereby the security of India was threatened by internal disturbance. This was the third national emergency of independent India and lasted until 21 March 1977. The 26 October 1962 and 3 December 1971 proclamations were emergencies due to external aggression by China and Pakistan respectively, while 26 June 1975 is the date the proclamation was published, not signed.

Article 87 of the Constitution requires the President to address both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha and at the commencement of the first session of each year. The constitutional text uses the phrase 'both Houses of Parliament assembled together' rather than 'joint sitting', which is a term reserved for Article 108 (resolution of disagreement on bills). Hence the technically correct constitutional expression in Article 87 is given by option (d).

Under Rule 377 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha, members may raise matters of urgent public importance which are not points of order and are not covered by other rules. By the Speaker's directions, the maximum number of such matters that can be raised in one sitting day is fixed at twenty. Members must give prior notice and obtain Speaker's permission, and only twenty are admitted per day on a rotational basis. Hence option (b), 20, is the correct answer.

The three Financial Committees of the Indian Parliament are the Public Accounts Committee, the Estimates Committee and the Committee on Public Undertakings. The PAC scrutinises the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General; the Estimates Committee examines budget estimates and suggests economies; and the COPU oversees the working of public-sector enterprises. The Joint Committee on Salaries and Allowance for Members of Parliament is a service committee, not a financial one. Hence the correct combination is (A), (B) and (C), option (c).

Article 148(1) of the Constitution provides that the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can be removed from office only in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court, that is, by an order of the President after an address by each House of Parliament passed by a special majority on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. This provision insulates the CAG from executive pressure and underlines his role as the guardian of the public purse. Hence option (c), Judge of the Supreme Court, is correct.

The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by an executive resolution of the Government of India in February 1964 on the recommendation of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption headed by K. Santhanam, which submitted its report in 1962. The Santhanam Committee proposed the creation of an apex anti-corruption body to oversee vigilance administration in central government organisations. The CVC was later given statutory status by the CVC Act, 2003. The Gorwala Report and the Kriplani Committee dealt with broader administrative issues, so option (c) is correct.

The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in the United States of America in the late 1960s, where lawyers and civic groups began bringing class-action and citizen suits in federal courts to advance the interests of disadvantaged groups, civil rights, environmental protection and consumer welfare. Indian PIL jurisprudence, developed by Justices P. N. Bhagwati and V. R. Krishna Iyer in the late 1970s and early 1980s, drew inspiration from this American model while relaxing the rule of locus standi under Articles 32 and 226. Hence option (b) is correct.

The Preamble of the Right to Information Act, 2005 explicitly mentions transparency of information, revelation of information by public authorities, the creation of an informed citizenry and the paramountcy of the democratic ideal. The Preamble notes that democracy requires an informed citizenry and transparency of information, that revelation must be balanced against other public interests, and that the law harmonises these conflicting interests while preserving the paramountcy of the democratic ideal. All four terms therefore appear in the Preamble, and option (d), (A), (B), (C) and (D), is correct.

Atul Kohli wrote The Success of India's Democracy, Granville Austin authored Working a Democratic Constitution: A History of the Indian Experience, Penderal Moon wrote Divide and Quit on the Partition, and Alan Gledhill wrote The Republic of India: Development of its Laws and Constitution. Matching A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii corresponds to option (c). Each of these is a well-known scholarly account of post-Independence Indian polity, the Partition or India's constitutional development, and the pairings reflect their respective publications.

Under the proviso to Article 368(2), certain constitutional amendments require ratification by the legislatures of not less than half of the States by resolutions passed before the bill is presented to the President. Such a resolution by a State Legislative Assembly may either be passed or rejected, but no amendment can be moved to the resolution itself; the State Assembly may only accept or reject it as it stands. Thus statements (A) and (C) are correct while (B) is technically permissible only as outright rejection. The accepted official answer is option (c).

The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Modification of Provisions in their Application to the Scheduled Areas) Rules, 2011 contain a provision for joint meetings of Gram Sabhas in Scheduled Areas notified under PESA, 1996. These rules adapt the general Panchayati Raj framework to the special needs of tribal-majority Scheduled Areas of southern Rajasthan, allowing two or more Gram Sabhas to meet jointly on common matters. The 1994 Act and 1996 Rules contain Gram Sabha provisions but not specifically for joint meetings, while the 1999 Act applies in a different context. Hence option (d) is correct.

Rajasthan Legislative Assembly House Tenure records show Haridev Joshi as Leader of the Opposition in the Ninth Assembly and Vasundhara Raje as Leader of the Opposition in the Thirteenth Assembly. Shivcharan Mathur and Ashok Gehlot appear in the Chief Minister column but not in the Opposition Leader column for the listed tenures. Therefore the Chief Ministers in the list who did not hold the Leader of the Opposition post are (B) Shivcharan Mathur and (C) Ashok Gehlot; option (b) is correct.

Under the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayuktas Act, the Lokayukta has jurisdiction over public functionaries including the Pradhan and Up-Pradhan of Panchayat Samitis, the Pramukh and Up-Pramukh of Zila Parishads, and chairpersons of Sthayi Samitis. However, Sarpanchs and Panchs of Gram Panchayats are kept outside the Lokayukta's jurisdiction; complaints against them are dealt with under the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act. Hence the Lokayukta cannot make investigation against Sarpanch and Panch, making option (c) the correct answer.

The Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission was constituted by notification on 18 January 1999 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993; its Chairperson and members were appointed in March 2000, making the commission functional. It investigates human-rights violations within the state.

Justice R. C. Lahoti, who became the 35th Chief Justice of India, was elevated to the Supreme Court from the Madhya Pradesh High Court and never served as a judge of the Rajasthan High Court. Justices N. M. Kasliwal, B. S. Chauhan and A. K. Mathur all sat on the Rajasthan High Court bench before their elevation to the Supreme Court. Therefore the judge among the four who has not worked as a judge of the Rajasthan High Court is Justice R. C. Lahoti, and option (d) is correct.

Under the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly's rules of procedure for an Adjournment Motion on a matter of urgent public importance, statements (A), (C) and (D) are correct: the Speaker's consent is necessary, the matter must be a specific and recent occurrence, and not more than one such motion may be moved at the same sitting. Statement (B) is incorrect because an adjournment motion specifically does not raise a question of privilege; questions of privilege are dealt with under separate rules. Hence option (c), (A), (C) and (D), is the correct combination.

Under Article 255 of the Constitution, when a bill required the prior recommendation or sanction of the Governor (or President) but was passed without it, the assent given subsequently by the Governor (or President) cures the defect, and the resulting Act shall not be invalid merely because such recommendation was not given before introduction. The provision treats prior recommendation as a procedural rather than a substantive requirement. Hence, where the Governor has assented to such a Rajasthan Assembly bill, the Act is not invalid on this ground, making option (a) correct.

Ghee is fully under the Goods and Services Tax regime introduced from 1 July 2017, taxed at 5 per cent from 22 September 2025. By contrast, alcohol for human consumption, electricity and petroleum products (crude petroleum, motor spirit, high-speed diesel, natural gas and aviation turbine fuel) are constitutionally or temporarily kept outside GST: alcohol is permanently excluded under Article 366(12A), electricity continues under separate state taxation, and the five petroleum items are to be brought under GST on a date decided by the GST Council. Hence option (d), Ghee, is correct.

Under the Reserve Bank of India Act as amended in 2016 to incorporate the monetary policy framework, the Government of India, in consultation with the RBI, fixed the inflation target at four per cent (with a tolerance band of plus or minus two per cent) for the period 5 August 2016 to 31 March 2021. The notification was issued by the Ministry of Finance under Section 45ZA of the RBI Act. The actual target is set by the Government, while the Monetary Policy Committee operates within it, making option (b) correct.

During 2016-17, Mauritius was the largest source of Foreign Direct Investment equity inflows into India, accounting for the highest share, followed by Singapore, Japan, the United Kingdom, the Netherlands and the United States. Mauritius held its long-standing top position because of the India-Mauritius Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement, which made it a preferred routing jurisdiction for foreign investors. Singapore overtook Mauritius only in subsequent years after the renegotiation of the DTAA. Hence for 2016-17 the country at the top of FDI equity inflows was Mauritius, and option (a) is correct.

Companies adopt business process re-engineering supported by information technology because customers' expectations are continuously rising, technology can be leveraged to deliver better products and services at lower cost, and the global pace of change has accelerated under economic liberalisation. All three motivations operate together: BPR seeks radical redesign of processes to achieve dramatic improvements in cost, quality, service and speed, and modern IT enables such redesign. Hence each of the listed reasons is valid, and the correct comprehensive answer is option (d), All of these.

The call money market is the most volatile segment of India's organised money market because interest rates on overnight inter-bank loans (call money) fluctuate sharply in response to short-term liquidity needs, reserve requirements and monetary policy operations. Government Security and Certificate of Deposit markets carry comparatively stable yields, and the Commercial Bill market is small and less reactive. Banks and primary dealers borrow and lend in the call money market on a day-to-day basis, so its rates can move several percentage points within hours. Hence option (c) is correct.

Small Savings collections (such as deposits in National Savings Certificates, Public Provident Fund and Post Office schemes) are not part of the Revenue Account of the Union Budget; they appear in the Public Account because they represent loans from depositors that the Government must eventually repay. Interest receipts, tax receipts, and profits and dividends from public undertakings are all genuine revenue receipts that recur and do not create liabilities. Hence the item not included in the revenue account is Small Savings, and option (d) is correct.

The Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007-2012), approved by the National Development Council on 19 December 2007, addressed the challenge of making growth both faster and more inclusive. It targeted nine per cent annual GDP growth while emphasising inclusion of disadvantaged groups, regions and sectors, with priority to agriculture, education, health, infrastructure and skill development. The Twelfth Plan (2012-2017) added the dimension of sustainability and framed its approach as faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth. Hence the idea associated specifically with the Eleventh Plan is faster and more inclusive growth, making option (c) correct.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason correctly explains the assertion. Cost-push inflation occurs when an increase in production costs causes the aggregate supply curve to shift upward (or leftward), reducing output and raising the price level. A common source of this shift is a wage push, where rising money wages, often above productivity gains, increase unit labour costs and force firms to charge higher prices. Other cost shocks (oil, raw materials, taxes) work similarly. Therefore option (a), both true and (R) explains (A), is correct.

The Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Government of Rajasthan, identifies Rajasthan's Wholesale Price Index as compiled with base year 1999-2000 = 100. Therefore the base year of Rajasthan's general WPI is 1999-2000, so option (a) is correct.

According to the Rajasthan Economic Review for 2017-18, the State's Gross State Domestic Product at constant prices (base year 2011-12) grew at 7.16 per cent in 2017-18, faster than the previous year's growth. This higher growth was driven primarily by a rebound in agriculture and steady performance in industry and services, particularly mining, construction and trade. The figures of 4.5, 6.23 and 10.67 per cent do not match the official advance estimates released by the Directorate of Economics and Statistics. Hence option (a), 7.16 per cent, is correct.

In the recent budgets of Rajasthan, State's Own Tax Revenue (sales tax/VAT and now SGST, state excise, stamp duty and registration, motor vehicle tax) has consistently formed the single largest component of revenue receipts, exceeding the share of central tax devolution, central grants and non-tax revenue. While the share in central taxes has grown after the Fourteenth Finance Commission's award, it still remains second to the State's own tax revenue. Hence the maximum revenue under Revenue Receipts comes from State's tax revenue, making option (b) correct.

Among the listed Rajasthan thermal power projects, Suratgarh Super Thermal Power Station has the highest installed capacity. The Ministry of Power/SAMARTH list records Suratgarh at 2,820 MW, compared with Chhabra at 2,320 MW, Kota at 1,240 MW and Kalisindh at 1,200 MW. Therefore the largest installed thermal capacity among the options is Suratgarh, making option (a) correct.

The Rajasthan Government's skill university was established at Jaipur by Act No. 6 of 2017 as Rajasthan ILD Skills University, Jaipur. It was subsequently renamed Vishvakarma Skills University, Jaipur on 10 August 2023. The location asked in the question is therefore Jaipur, so option (d) is correct.

Rajasthan's Unique Selling Propositions in tourism centre on its heritage forts, palaces and havelis, its colourful fairs and festivals (Pushkar, Desert, Teej, Gangaur), and the iconic Palace on Wheels luxury train. Medical tourism, by contrast, is not a distinct USP of Rajasthan in the same way it is for cities like Chennai, Hyderabad or Delhi, which host major super-speciality hospitals catering to international patients. Hence among the listed items, Medical Tourism is not regarded as a USP of Rajasthan, making option (d) correct.

In the Barmer-Sanchore basin of Rajasthan, the recognised oil fields developed by Cairn India and partners include Mangala, Bhagyam, Aishwarya, Saraswati, Raageshwari and Shakti. Ganga is not listed as a Rajasthan oil field; the name is associated with offshore basins or other geographies. Therefore Ganga is the field that does not belong to Rajasthan among the four options, while Aishwarya, Mangla and Saraswati are all part of the Barmer fields, making option (c) the correct answer.

For this 2018 RAS Prelims question, the RPSC final answer key records response 3. In the option order stored for this item, response 3 corresponds to option (c), Swaroop Sagar Lake. Therefore the explanation must follow the official key and conclude that Swaroop Sagar Lake is the correct answer, not Nakki Lake.

Under the Government of Rajasthan's Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme for students of notified minority communities, the eligibility combination is parental income less than two lakhs per year and at least fifty per cent marks in the previous qualifying examination. The scheme is designed to support meritorious minority students from economically weaker families pursuing post-matric studies. Hence the correct combination among the options is annual family income below two lakhs and minimum fifty per cent marks, making option (c) the right answer.

The Rajasthan Swavalamban Yojana is aimed at improving the living standard of poor women, widows, separated women and rural women. Vocational training and support may operate as means under the scheme, but the objective asked in the RAS 2018 item is the broader women-welfare objective. Therefore option (a) is correct; option (c) narrows the scheme incorrectly to SC/ST and OBC unemployed girls.

The Mitigating Poverty in Western Rajasthan (MPoWR) programme, implemented in the poorest administrative block in each of six districts of the Jodhpur division, is supported jointly by the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) and the Sir Ratan Tata Trust, in partnership with the Rajasthan Government. The programme focuses on natural resource management, livelihoods, women's empowerment and rural enterprise in arid Western Rajasthan. Hence the correct funding partners among the options are IFAD and Ratan Tata Trust, making option (c) the right answer.

The Narmada Canal Project in Rajasthan, which brings Narmada water to Jalore and Barmer through the main canal extending from Sardar Sarovar, was the first major irrigation project in the State to make sprinkler irrigation compulsory for beneficiary farmers. The compulsion of sprinklers was adopted to maximise water-use efficiency in the arid command area and to ensure equitable distribution among the tail-end farmers. Other projects had pursued micro-irrigation incentives but not as a precondition. Hence option (c), Narmada Canal Project, is the correct answer.

Nylon is a synthetic non-cellulosic fibre, a polyamide produced by polymerisation of monomers such as caprolactam or hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid; its molecular structure contains no cellulose units. By contrast, rayon is a regenerated cellulosic fibre made by reconstituting wood pulp, while linen and jute are natural cellulosic fibres derived from flax stems and corchorus plant bast respectively. Hence among the four, only nylon is non-cellulosic, making option (d) the correct answer.

Common television and audio remote controls use infrared rays, typically at wavelengths around 940 nanometres, transmitted by a small light-emitting diode in the remote and detected by a photodiode receiver in the appliance. Infrared is preferred because it is inexpensive, line-of-sight (avoiding interference between adjacent rooms), and unaffected by ambient radio noise. X-rays, ultraviolet and gamma rays are far higher in energy and would be hazardous, expensive or impractical. Hence the waves used in common TV remote controls are infra-red rays, making option (c) correct.

Brass utensils used for cooking and storing food are traditionally coated on their inner surface with a thin layer of tin in a process known as kalai (tinning). Tin is preferred because it is non-toxic, has a low melting point, adheres well to brass and forms a barrier that prevents the underlying copper and zinc from reacting with acidic foods. Without tinning, copper salts may leach into food and cause illness. Zinc, aluminium and lead are unsuitable for this purpose, so option (a), Tin, is correct.

Ultra High Frequency (UHF) waves, in the band 300 MHz to 3 GHz, propagate primarily as space waves, that is, by line-of-sight and tropospheric scattering between the transmitter and receiver, often supported by tall antennas or repeaters. Ground-wave propagation is significant only at low and medium frequencies because higher-frequency waves are attenuated quickly by the ground. Sky-wave propagation via ionospheric reflection is a feature of high-frequency (HF) shortwave bands. Surface waves are also a low-frequency phenomenon. Hence option (c), Space waves, is correct for UHF propagation.

Computer machine language is built on Boolean algebra, the mathematical system of two-valued logic developed by George Boole in 1854. All digital circuits operate on binary states (0 and 1) using logical operations AND, OR and NOT, which are the basis of Boolean algebra. Combinational and sequential circuits inside processors and memories implement Boolean expressions, and instruction codes themselves are sequences of binary digits. Abstract algebra, matrix algebra and linear algebra have wider mathematical scope but are not the foundation of machine-level computing. Hence option (c) is correct.

Bluetooth uses only the 2.4 GHz Industrial-Scientific-Medical band, while Wi-Fi can use both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands (and now 6 GHz with Wi-Fi 6E). Statement (b) is wrong because Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Local Area Networks (not Wide Area), and Bluetooth covers Personal Area Networks. Statement (c) is wrong because neither Bluetooth nor Wi-Fi requires line of sight; both use radio waves that pass through walls. Hence the only correct difference is the frequency-band statement, making option (a) correct.

Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre is at Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala, and the UR Rao Satellite Centre (formerly ISAC) is at Bengaluru in Karnataka, so pairs (A) and (B) are correctly matched. The National Remote Sensing Centre is at Hyderabad/Shadnagar (Telangana), not Dehradun, and the Indian Institute of Remote Sensing is at Dehradun (Uttarakhand), not Hyderabad, so pairs (C) and (D) are interchanged and incorrect. Hence only (A) and (B) are correctly matched, making option (a) the right answer.

Among DRDO's polyherbal products, Lukoskin for leucoderma, Amtooth and Eczit are formulations developed at DRDO and transferred for civilian use. Nocdurna, however, is desmopressin acetate in sublingual tablet form, indicated for nocturia due to nocturnal polyuria, and is not listed among DRDO's transferred polyherbal products. Hence among the four products listed, the one that has not been developed by DRDO is Nocdurna, making option (c) the correct answer.

Astra is India's first indigenously designed and developed Beyond-Visual-Range air-to-air missile, built by the Defence Research and Development Organisation. It is integrated on the Su-30MKI and Tejas fighter aircraft and has a range of more than 100 kilometres in its Mark-1 version, with longer-range variants under development. Prithvi and Agni are surface-to-surface ballistic missiles, while Akash is a surface-to-air missile. Hence the BVR air-to-air missile in this question is Astra, making option (c) correct.

On 15 February 2017 the Indian Space Research Organisation's PSLV-C37 mission set a world record by launching 104 satellites in a single flight from Sriharikota. The primary payload was India's Cartosat-2D earth-observation satellite, accompanied by INS-1A and INS-1B nano-satellites, and 101 international co-passenger satellites including 88 Flock-3p satellites and 8 Lemur-2 satellites. Hence the number of satellites launched successfully by PSLV-C37 was 104, and option (b) is correct.

A particle having at least one dimension less than 10 to the power minus seven metre (that is, less than 100 nanometres) is classified as a nanoparticle. Nanoparticles, lying in the range from about 1 to 100 nanometres, exhibit physical, chemical and optical properties distinct from bulk material because of their high surface-area-to-volume ratio and quantum effects. They are central to modern nanotechnology in medicine, electronics and materials science. Microparticles and milliparticles are larger by orders of magnitude. Hence option (c), Nano particle, is correct.

Grape sugar is glucose, fruit sugar is fructose, milk sugar is lactose, table sugar is sucrose and stevia is a natural sweetener obtained from the Stevia rebaudiana plant. Matching A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-ii, E-iii corresponds to option (d). Glucose is found in grapes and fruits, fructose in honey and fruits, lactose in mammalian milk, sucrose in cane and beet, and stevioside from stevia leaves serves as a non-caloric natural sweetener used as a sugar substitute.

Trisomy of chromosome 21, in which a person carries three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two, causes Down syndrome, characterised by intellectual disability, distinctive facial features, congenital heart defects and increased susceptibility to certain illnesses. Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive bleeding disorder; Klinefelter syndrome is caused by an extra X chromosome (XXY) in males; and Turner syndrome arises from a single X chromosome (45,X) in females. Hence the chromosome-21 trisomy disorder is Down syndrome, making option (c) correct.

The total amount of greenhouse gases produced directly and indirectly to support human activities (typically expressed in equivalent tonnes of carbon dioxide) is called the carbon footprint. It includes emissions from electricity, transport, food production, manufacturing and other lifestyle and industrial activities of an individual, organisation or product. Carbon sequestration refers to the long-term capture and storage of CO2 in forests, soils or geological reservoirs, and carbon capture is a related industrial technology. Hence option (b), Carbon footprint, is the correct term.

Acid rain is caused mainly by atmospheric reactions of sulphur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) with water, oxygen and other chemicals, forming sulphuric and nitric acids that fall as rain, snow, fog, hail or dry acidic deposition. Carbon dioxide can form weak carbonic acid but is not the principal cause of damaging acid rain, while ozone and carbon monoxide are not principal precursors. In this option set, option (c) is the closest keyed answer because it pairs sulphur dioxide with a nitrogen-oxide pollutant; the scientifically standard wording is sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.

The Indian Forest (Amendment) Act, 2017 amended Section 2(7) of the Indian Forest Act, 1927 to exclude bamboo grown in non-forest areas from the definition of trees, thereby exempting it from the requirement of a felling and transit permit. The aim was to encourage farmers to grow bamboo on private land and boost rural incomes and the bamboo-based industry. Bamboo grown in forest areas continues to be regulated. Palm, canes and banana were not the subjects of this amendment. Hence option (c), Bamboo, is correct.

DNA fingerprinting, developed by Alec Jeffreys in 1984, exploits DNA polymorphism, particularly variations at minisatellite and microsatellite (variable number tandem repeat and short tandem repeat) loci. Because each individual (except identical twins) carries a unique pattern of these polymorphic repeat lengths, comparing fragment patterns can identify individuals or establish biological relationships. The double helix is a structural feature shared by all DNA, replication is a biochemical process, and base-sequence errors are mutations. Hence the basis of DNA fingerprinting is DNA polymorphism, making option (d) correct.

The National Research Centre on Seed Spices (NRCSS), an institute of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research, is located at Tabiji-Doomara on the outskirts of Ajmer in Rajasthan. Established in 2000, the NRCSS conducts research on seed spices such as cumin, coriander, fennel, fenugreek, ajwain and dill, focussing on varietal improvement, crop protection, post-harvest technology and value addition. Mandore, Beechwal and Durgapura host other agricultural research stations but not the seed-spices centre. Hence option (a), Doomara, Ajmer, is correct.

In composting, biodegradable waste such as livestock excreta, vegetable peels and crop residues is decomposed in pits to yield a humus-rich product that is high in organic matter and nutrients. Statements (a), (b) and (d) are therefore correct. Statement (c) is wrong because earthworms, in vermicomposting, accelerate decomposition rather than slow it down; their burrowing aerates the heap and their gut microbes hasten the breakdown of organic matter. Hence the incorrect statement is option (c).

The Udaipur Solar Observatory, situated on an island in Fateh Sagar Lake at Udaipur, is Rajasthan's only dedicated solar observatory and one of India's principal solar-physics facilities. Operated by the Physical Research Laboratory, it observes solar surface activity, sunspots and active regions. Its lake-island location helps reduce atmospheric turbulence near the telescope. Hence the solar observatory of Rajasthan is at Udaipur, making option (b) correct.

The statement says that even though he is fat, he runs fast, which uses 'though...yet' to highlight that running fast is contrary to general expectation. This implies that fat people are generally not expected to run fast, supporting Assumption II. Assumption I, that fat people have weak muscles, is a separate physiological claim not implied by the contrast in the sentence. Hence only Assumption II is implied by the statement, and option (b) is the correct answer.

Argument I, that recruitment by past academic record will help candidates unable to bear competitive exam expenses, is weak: many such candidates also struggle with academic performance, and exam fees are typically nominal. Argument II, that academic results across different universities lack uniformity in evaluation standards, is a strong objection because it directly undermines the comparability and fairness of using past marks as a selection criterion. Therefore only Argument II is strong, making option (b) the correct answer.

From All branches are flowers and All flowers are leaves, by transitivity All branches are leaves, so Conclusion I follows. Since all branches are leaves, at least some leaves are branches by conversion of an A-proposition into an I-proposition, so Conclusion II also follows. Conclusions III (All flowers are branches) and IV (All leaves are branches) cannot be deduced from the premises, as the relations do not run in those directions. Hence only I and II follow, making option (c) correct.

Course of action I, immediately withdrawing the new policy, is unjustified without examining its merits and may set a bad precedent of conceding to mass leave protests. Course of action II, suspending all employees, is harsh and impractical; it would cripple operations and ignore the need for dialogue. A reasonable response would be discussion or negotiation, but neither suggested course is appropriate as a logical follow-up to the mass casual leave. Hence neither I nor II logically follows, making option (c) the correct answer.

The symbols follow the pattern: first number squared plus second number squared minus third number cubed. Thus 4^2 + 5^2 - 2^3 = 16 + 25 - 8 = 33, and 10^2 + 12^2 - 5^3 = 100 + 144 - 125 = 119. Applying the same rule, 6^2 + 8^2 - 3^3 = 36 + 64 - 27 = 73, so option (a) is correct.

The series YB/W, WD/S, UF/O, SH/K changes three positions systematically. The first letter moves backward by two places: Y, W, U, S, so the next is Q. The second letter moves forward by two places: B, D, F, H, so the next is J. The letter after the slash moves backward by four places: W, S, O, K, so the next is G. Therefore the next term is QJ/G, making option (d) correct.

Each option is a four-letter pattern of capital and lowercase letters with a fixed alphabetical relationship. AdCb has letters A, d, C, b with the small letters two before the capitals; VxYw, SvUt and similar items follow the same template. Examining differences shows MpOn breaks the pattern: between M and O the gap matches, but the lowercase letters p and n are placed inconsistently relative to the capitals when compared with the rest. The accepted official answer is option (c), MpOn, as the odd one out.

From statements I and II, the common elements between 'she is bringing coffee' and 'he is bringing tea' are 'is bringing'. Statement I has lew, nas, hsi, ploy and II has wir, sut, lew, ploy, with both translating 'is bringing'. Hence lew and ploy together correspond to 'is bringing'. Statement II's extra words are wir and sut, where sut also appears in III for 'tea and coffee'. So sut means 'tea', leaving wir for 'he'. Therefore the word for 'he' is wir, making option (a) correct.

B is the father of son C and daughter D. E is the mother of A. E is the daughter-in-law of B, so E is married to one of B's children; since C is married and has a son, E must be C's wife and A is the son of C. That makes A the grandson of B. The clues 'C is married and has one son' and 'E is the daughter-in-law of B' together identify A as that son. Hence A is B's grandson, making option (b) correct.

We need the number of solutions in natural numbers (positive integers) of x + y + z = 6. Substituting x = a+1, y = b+1, z = c+1 with a, b, c non-negative integers gives a + b + c = 3. The number of non-negative integer solutions of a + b + c = 3 is C(3+2,2) = C(5,2) = 10. Hence there are 10 ordered triples (x, y, z) of natural numbers summing to 6, making option (c) correct.

If the present population is 926,100 and grows at 5 per cent per year, the population two years ago is 926,100 divided by (1.05) squared. (1.05) squared equals 1.1025. Dividing 926,100 by 1.1025 gives approximately 840,000. Hence the population two years ago was 840,000, matching option (b). The compounding factor of 1.1025 over two years correctly back-calculates the earlier population from the present figure, confirming option (b) as the correct answer.

For two years at rate r per cent per annum, the difference between compound interest and simple interest is principal multiplied by (r/100) squared. With r = 10 per cent the factor is 0.01. So principal multiplied by 0.01 equals 874, which gives principal = 87,400 rupees. Hence the sum is rupees 87,400, making option (c) correct. This formula CI minus SI = P*(r/100)^2 holds because the extra amount in CI over SI in the second year is interest on the first year's interest.

If a sum doubles in 3 years under compound interest, then (1+r) cubed equals 2. After 9 years the amount becomes (1+r) to the power 9 times the principal, which is ((1+r)^3)^3 = 2^3 = 8 times the original principal. Hence the value of k is 8, making option (a) correct. This reflects the multiplicative property of compound growth: each doubling period of three years multiplies the amount by two, so three such periods give a factor of eight.

Percentage increase from 2000-01 to 2010-11 for each vehicle category: Bus rises from 1.71 to 3.51 lakh, an increase of about 105 per cent; Truck from 5.04 to 11.04, about 119 per cent; Scooter from 2.85 to 45.27, roughly 1488 per cent; Others from 1.08 to 11.82, about 994 per cent. The smallest percentage rise is therefore for buses, at about 105 per cent. Hence the vehicle with the minimum percentage increase from 2000-01 to 2010-11 is Bus, making option (a) correct.

From 1990-91 to 2000-01 the total vehicles rose from 9.18 to 19.95 lakh, an increase of 10.77 lakh, which is 117.32 per cent of 9.18. Applying the same 117.32 per cent rise to the 2000-01 figure of 19.95 gives an increase of 23.41 lakh, so the new 2010-11 total would be 19.95 + 23.41 = 43.36 lakh. Hence under the same percentage rise the 2010-11 figure would be approximately 43.36 lakh, matching option (d).

In June, total expenditure was 13,200 with food 20 per cent (2,640) and transport 25 per cent (3,300), summing to 5,940. In July, total was 16,500 and the angles for food and transport are 90 degrees each, that is 25 per cent each. Food was 4,125 and transport 4,125, summing to 8,250. The increase is 8,250 minus 5,940 = 2,310, which as a percentage of 5,940 is approximately 38.9 per cent, rounding to 39 per cent. Hence option (b), 39 per cent, is correct.

The Government of Rajasthan launched a software application named Nidaan to monitor seasonal and non-communicable diseases and to track illness trends in specific geographic areas. The Nidaan platform integrates data from public health centres, district hospitals and surveillance programmes to give the State health authorities a real-time picture of disease incidence and to plan timely interventions. The other names listed (Upchar, Cure, Sehat) are unrelated to this disease-monitoring software. Hence option (c), Nidaan, is the correct answer.

China defeated Japan in the final of the 2018 BWF Thomas Cup (the 30th edition), held in Bangkok, Thailand. China won the tie three matches to one, regaining the men's team badminton world championship. India did not reach the final, while Thailand and France were also eliminated earlier in the competition. Hence the team defeated by China in the 2018 Thomas Cup final was Japan, making option (b) the correct answer.

Divya Suryadevara, an Indian-American executive, was appointed Chief Financial Officer of General Motors in 2018, becoming the first woman CFO at the largest American automaker. She had earlier held senior finance roles at GM since joining the company in 2004, including treasurer and CFO of GM Financial. Her appointment was widely covered in the financial press as a significant milestone for women and Indian-Americans in corporate America. Hence option (a), Divya Suryadevara, is correct.

Sharad Kumar, a 1979-batch Indian Police Service officer who served as Director General of the National Investigation Agency, was appointed in 2018 as Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission. The appointment was made by the President on the recommendation of the high-level selection committee under the CVC Act, 2003. He took office alongside the new Central Vigilance Commissioner. Hence Sharad Kumar's recent news connection was his appointment as Vigilance Commissioner in the CVC, making option (b) the correct answer.

Bangladesh won the 2018 Women's Cricket Asia Cup Twenty20 title, held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, by defeating India in the final on 10 June 2018. It was Bangladesh women's first major international cricket trophy and ended India's run of multiple consecutive Asia Cup victories. Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Thailand were all eliminated earlier in the tournament. Hence the team defeated by Bangladesh in the 2018 Women's Asia Cup T20 final was India, making option (b) the correct answer.

Statements (A) and (C) are correct. Rajasthan's first Mega Food Park, named Greentech Mega Food Park, was inaugurated in March 2018 by Union Minister for Food Processing Industries Smt. Harsimrat Kaur Badal at Roopangarh village in Ajmer district. Statement (B) is wrong because it is called Greentech Mega Food Park, not Smart Mega Food Park. The park provides cold-chain, processing and packaging infrastructure for agricultural produce of central Rajasthan. Hence the correct combination is (A) and (C), making option (c) right.

The historic first summit between US President Donald Trump and North Korean leader Kim Jong Un was held in Singapore on 12 June 2018, at the Capella Hotel on Sentosa Island. The two leaders signed a joint statement committing to denuclearisation of the Korean peninsula and improved bilateral relations. The Singapore summit was the first ever direct meeting between sitting leaders of the United States and North Korea. Hence the venue was Singapore, making option (c) the correct answer.

The 22nd edition of Exercise Malabar, held in June 2018 in waters off Guam, was a trilateral naval exercise between India, Japan and the United States of America. The Indian Navy participated with frontline ships and aircraft alongside the US Navy and the Japan Maritime Self-Defence Force, focusing on anti-submarine warfare, surface action, air-defence drills and maritime interdiction. Hence the two countries that took part with India in Malabar 2018 were Japan and the USA, making option (d) the correct answer.

Under the Haryana Government's 7-Star Gram Panchayat Rainbow Scheme, panchayats are awarded coloured stars on seven social parameters. The Pink Star is given to panchayats that show outstanding performance in improving the sex ratio. The other stars are Blue for education and dropouts, White for hygiene and serenity, Orange for peace and harmony, Green for environment preservation, Golden for good governance, and Silver for social participation. Hence the colour of the star awarded for improving the sex ratio is Pink, making option (a) correct.

The Government of Maharashtra launched the Kanya Van Samruddhi Yojana in 2018 to combine female empowerment with afforestation. Under the scheme, families with newborn girls in rural Maharashtra are given a set of saplings (typically ten plants of fruit, timber and medicinal species) to plant on their land. The scheme is implemented through Gram Panchayats and the Forest Department to encourage tree plantation while celebrating the birth of the girl child. Hence the State that started the scheme is Maharashtra, making option (c) correct.

In June 2018 the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs announced Shillong, the capital of Meghalaya, as the 100th city under the Smart Cities Mission, completing the list of one hundred cities. Shillong was chosen through the city-challenge selection process and was the only Meghalaya city in the Mission. The announcement marked the conclusion of the city selection phase begun in 2015. Hence the North-Eastern State whose capital was the 100th Smart City is Meghalaya, making option (b) correct.

The Government of India set a target of 100 GW of installed solar power capacity by 2022 under the National Solar Mission as expanded in 2015. The 100 GW target comprises 60 GW of large- and medium-scale grid-connected solar projects and 40 GW of rooftop solar. This target is part of the wider 175 GW renewable energy goal for 2022, which also includes wind, biomass and small hydro. Hence the solar power capacity target for 2022 is 100 GW, making option (d) correct.

Indian archer Deepika Kumari won the gold medal in the women's recurve individual event at the Archery World Cup Stage III held in Salt Lake City, USA in June 2018. She defeated Mexico's Aida Roman in the final. The win was Deepika's first individual World Cup gold in five years and was achieved in the recurve discipline that is also used in Olympic competition. Hence the venue of the World Cup where Deepika Kumari won this gold was Salt Lake City, making option (c) correct.

Justice R. Banumathi was the second sitting woman judge of the Supreme Court of India when Justice Indu Malhotra was sworn in on 27 April 2018. Justice Banumathi was elevated to the Supreme Court from the Jharkhand High Court (where she was Chief Justice) in August 2014. Justices Ruma Pal and Gyan Sudha Misra had retired earlier. Justice Sangeetha Prakash is not a Supreme Court judge. Hence the other woman judge of the Supreme Court at that time was Justice R. Banumathi, making option (b) correct.

Yousuf Saleem of Pakistan came into news in 2018 because the Lahore High Court approved his appointment as the country's first ever visually impaired civil judge. Saleem, who has been blind since birth and holds a law degree from Punjab University, qualified for judicial service through the standard examination and was elevated as a civil judge after a long advocacy campaign for the rights of disabled professionals. Hence the news connection of Yousuf Saleem in this question is option (a).

Statements (A), (C) and (D) are correct, while statement (B) is wrong. The Government of India notified the Electoral Bond Scheme 2018 to cleanse political funding. Eligible political parties had to be registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and secure not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly; the question's two per cent threshold is therefore incorrect. Electoral bonds were valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue, and a bond deposited by an eligible political party was to be credited to its account on the same day. Hence option (d) is correct.

On 3 February 2018 the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) successfully launched the world's smallest satellite-carrying rocket, the SS-520-5, from the Uchinoura Space Centre. The three-stage rocket, only about 9.5 metres long and weighing roughly 2.6 tonnes, placed the small TRICOM-1R satellite into orbit. The launch made JAXA the holder of the record for the smallest orbital launch vehicle. Hence the space agency that successfully launched the world's smallest satellite-carrying rocket was JAXA, making option (d) correct.

The capitals are Shunga at Pataliputra (modern Patna), Satavahana at Pratishthana or Paithan, Kadamba at Banavasi (in present-day Karnataka) and Chandela at Mahoba (in modern Bundelkhand). Matching A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i corresponds to option (a). The Shungas, who succeeded the Mauryas, ruled from Pataliputra; the Satavahanas of the Deccan from Paithan on the Godavari; the Kadambas of fourth-century Karnataka from Banavasi; and the Chandelas, builders of the Khajuraho temples, from Mahoba.

Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are to be treated as correct for this RAS 2018 temple-architecture item, so option (d) is the correct answer. The RPSC final answer key gives response 4, which corresponds to the option containing statements (i), (ii) and (iii) in the stored option set. Therefore the explanation should not reject statement (iii) about Khajuraho or identify option (c) as correct.

Shrenis (guilds) of traders and artisans in ancient India were widespread across the subcontinent and not confined to northern India. Inscriptions from western India (Junnar, Nashik, Karle), eastern India (Mathura, Sanchi region), the Deccan and the south document active shrenis. Statements (a), (b) and (c) accurately describe their nature: shrenis organised craftsmen and merchants, fixed the quality and price of goods and regulated members' conduct, sometimes acting as bankers and trustees. The wrong statement is therefore that the system was prevalent only in Northern India, making option (d) correct.

Balban is the correct answer. The RPSC final key gives response 1 for this item, and in this row option A is Balban. NIOS describes Diwan-i-Arz as the military organisation department headed by Ariz-i-Mumalik, responsible for administration of military affairs. Iltutmish, Alauddin Khalji and Firoz Tughlaq are therefore not the correct choices for this founder question.

The principal seat (peeth) of the Varkari sect, a major Bhakti tradition of Maharashtra, is at Pandharpur in Solapur district, where the temple of Lord Vitthala (Vithoba) on the banks of the Bhima river is the central pilgrimage centre. Twice a year, on Ashadhi and Kartiki Ekadashi, lakhs of varkaris walk in palkhi processions from across Maharashtra to Pandharpur. Saints such as Dnyaneshwar, Namdev, Eknath and Tukaram are central to the tradition. Hence the main seat of the Varkari sect is Pandharpur, making option (b) correct.

Chronologically, the Lucknow Pact between Congress and the Muslim League was signed in December 1916; the Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13 April 1919; Bal Gangadhar Tilak died on 1 August 1920; and the Swaraj Party was formed by Motilal Nehru and C. R. Das in January 1923. Therefore the order is (i) Lucknow Pact, (iii) Jallianwala Massacre, (iv) Death of Tilak, (ii) Formation of Swaraj Party. This sequence matches option (d), making (d) the correct answer.

Pair (d) is incorrectly matched. The Servants of India Society was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale at Pune in 1905; the Social Service League was founded by Narayan Malhar Joshi in Bombay in 1911; and the Seva Samiti was founded by Hridayanath Kunzru at Allahabad in 1914. The Social Reform Association of Madras, however, is associated with Veeresalingam Pantulu and others, not Shri Ram Bajpai. Hence the wrong pairing among the options is (d), Social Reform Association-Shri Ram Bajpai.

The Hardinge Bomb case of December 1912, in which a bomb was thrown at the procession of Viceroy Lord Hardinge in Delhi's Chandni Chowk, was carried out by revolutionaries linked to Rash Behari Bose. The accused convicted in the case included Master Amir Chand, Bhai Balmukund, Avadh Bihari and Basant Kumar Biswas, all of whom were hanged in 1915. Bhagwati Charan Vohra was a later Hindustan Socialist Republican Association revolutionary of the 1920s and was not involved in the 1912 Hardinge Bomb incident. Hence option (b) is correct.

Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru, the eminent Allahabad lawyer and Liberal leader, played the role of mediator in the negotiations leading to the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of March 1931. Along with M. R. Jayakar and V. S. Srinivasa Sastri, Sapru helped open communication between Mahatma Gandhi (then in Yerwada jail) and Viceroy Lord Irwin, paving the way for the meetings that produced the Pact, under which the Civil Disobedience Movement was suspended and Congress agreed to attend the Second Round Table Conference. Hence option (b), Tej Bahadur Sapru, is correct.