RAS 2016 Prelims — Previous Year Questions with Answers
150 questions with answer keys and explanations.
- Q1
The ancient city which is mentioned in the Mahabharata and Mahabhashya both
- A. Viratnagar (Bairath)
- B. Madhyamika (Nagari) ✓ Correct
- C. Raidh
- D. Karkot
Answer: B
Show explanation
Madhyamika (Nagari) is the ancient city associated with references in both the Mahabharata and Patanjali's Mahabhashya. ASI's account of Nagari identifies Madhyamika as the old name of Nagari and notes that Patanjali refers to Madhyamika being besieged by a Yavana king; it also records the Mahabharata reference in connection with Nakula's western expedition. Therefore option (b), Madhyamika (Nagari), is correct.
- Q2
The inscription which proves the influence of Bhagwat cult in ancient Rajasthan is
- A. Ghatiyala Inscription
- B. Besnagar Inscription of Heliodorous
- C. Buchkala Inscription
- D. Ghosundi Inscription ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Ghosundi Inscription, found near Nagari in Chittorgarh district of Rajasthan and dated to the second century BCE, is the earliest epigraphic record establishing the influence of the Bhagavata cult in ancient Rajasthan. It mentions the construction of a stone enclosure, the Narayana-vatika, in honour of the deities Sankarshana and Vasudeva, who are central to Vaishnava Bhagavatism. The Besnagar pillar inscription of Heliodorus is significant for the Bhagavata cult but is located in Madhya Pradesh, not Rajasthan, making Ghosundi the appropriate Rajasthan-specific answer.
- Q3
From the following temples of Rajasthan identify the temples which were built in the Gurjar-Pratihar period: (i) Adivarah temple of Ahad (ii) Harshat Mata temple of Abhaneri (iii) Neelkanth temple of Rajorgarh (iv) Harihar temple of Osian Codes:
- A. (i) and (iv)
- B. (i), (ii) and (iv)
- C. (ii) and (iv)
- D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The official RPSC final key for RAS Prelims 2016 marks this question as response 4. In the listed code set, response 4 includes all four temples: Adivarah temple of Ahad, Harshat Mata temple of Abhaneri, Neelkanth temple of Rajorgarh and Harihar temple of Osian. Therefore, for this PYQ, the accepted combination is (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), matching option (d).
- Q4
Who amongst the following scholars was not in the Court of Kumbha?
- A. Tilla Bhatt
- B. Muni Sunder Suri
- C. Muni Jin Vijay Suri ✓ Correct
- D. Natha
Answer: C
Show explanation
Maharana Kumbha of Mewar (1433-1468) maintained a celebrated court of scholars including Tilla Bhatt, Muni Sundar Suri and the musician-scholar Natha, all of whom contributed to texts and music associated with his reign. Muni Jin Vijay Suri, however, is a twentieth-century Jain scholar and historian famed for editing medieval Rajasthani manuscripts; he is not associated with Kumbha's fifteenth-century court. Hence Muni Jin Vijay Suri is the figure who was not present in Kumbha's assembly.
- Q5
With which of the following areas of Rajasthan the Alibakshi Khayal is associated?
- A. Karauli
- B. Chidawa
- C. Alwar ✓ Correct
- D. Chittor
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Alibakshi Khayal is a folk theatrical form of singing-dance-drama developed by the nineteenth-century poet-composer Ali Bakhsh of Mundawar. It is associated with the Alwar region of Rajasthan, where the tradition continues to be performed during festivals and fairs. The form is distinguished from the Kuchamani, Shekhawati, Jaipuri and Turra-Kalangi Khayals which belong to other regions. Therefore Alwar is the correct geographical association for the Alibakshi Khayal style.
- Q6
Shankariya dance of Rajasthan is related to
- A. Kaibeliya ✓ Correct
- B. Bhil
- C. Sahariya
- D. Terahtali
Answer: A
Show explanation
The official RPSC final answer key for RAS Prelims 2016 marks this question as response 1. In the displayed option set, response 1 corresponds to Kalbeliya. Therefore Shankariya dance is to be associated with the Kalbeliya community in this PYQ, while Bhil, Sahariya and Terahtali are distractors. The correct answer is option A.
- Q7
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? Name - Text (Music)
- A. Pundrik Vitala - Raagmala ✓ Correct
- B. Pandit Bhavbhatt - Sangeetraj
- C. Kumbha - Ragakalpadrum
- D. Ustad Chand Khan - Ragachandrika
Answer: A
Show explanation
Pandit Bhavbhatt, a court musician of Maharao Anirudh Singh of Bundi in the late seventeenth century, is the recognised author of Sangeetraj along with companion treatises such as Sangeet-Anupankush. Maharana Kumbha of Mewar wrote Sangeet-Raj and Sangeet-Mimansa, not Ragakalpadrum. Pundrik Vitthal authored Ragmala but the spelling and pairing in option (a) is mismatched with established attribution. Therefore the correct pairing among those listed is Pandit Bhavbhatt with Sangeetraj.
- Q8
Which of the following pair is not correctly matched? Peasant Movement - Leader
- A. Begun - Ram Narayan Chaudhary
- B. Bundi - Naynu Ram Sharma
- C. Bijoliya - Vijay Singh Pathik
- D. Bikaner - Narottam Lal Joshi ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Bikaner Praja Parishad and the associated peasant agitation in the princely state were led by Magharam Vaidya and later by Raghuvar Dayal Goyal, not by Narottam Lal Joshi, who was active in Jaipur affairs. The other pairings are correct: Ram Narayan Chaudhary led the Begun movement, Naynu Ram Sharma led the Bundi peasants, and Vijay Singh Pathik led the famous Bijoliya Kisan Andolan. Therefore the Bikaner-Narottam Lal Joshi pairing is incorrectly matched.
- Q9
What is the meaning of 'Patta Rekh' in the history of Rajasthan?
- A. Expected revenue ✓ Correct
- B. Military tax
- C. Export-import tax
- D. Begar
Answer: A
Show explanation
In Rajasthan's medieval revenue terminology, Patta Rekh referred to the expected or assessed revenue recorded in the patta (lease deed) issued to a jagirdar or cultivator. It represented the anticipated income from a land grant rather than the actual collection. The term was distinct from military taxes, customs duties or forced labour (begar). Therefore expected revenue is the correct meaning of Patta Rekh in the historical revenue system of Rajasthan.
- Q10
Where was the Headquarter of Shekhawati Brigade located?
- A. Sikar
- B. Jhunjhunu ✓ Correct
- C. Khetri
- D. Fatehpur
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Shekhawati Brigade was a paramilitary force raised by the British East India Company in 1835 under Major Henry Forster to maintain order in the Shekhawati region. Its headquarters was established at Jhunjhunu, which served as the central base for operations across the thakurates of Shekhawati. The brigade was later involved in suppressing local resistance and played a role during the 1857 uprising in the area. Hence Jhunjhunu is the correct headquarter location.
- Q11
Which one of the following newspapers of pre-independence Rajasthan was not the promoter of Arya Samaj ideology?
- A. Desh Hiteshi
- B. Janhitkarak
- C. Paropkarak
- D. Rajputana Gazette ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Desh Hiteshi, Janhitkarak and Paropkarak were all pre-independence newspapers published in Rajasthan that actively propagated Arya Samaj ideals such as social reform, anti-untouchability and Vedic education. The Rajputana Gazette, by contrast, was an official English-language colonial publication that did not promote Arya Samaj ideology. Therefore Rajputana Gazette is the newspaper that did not serve as a promoter of the Arya Samaj movement among the listed options.
- Q12
In which of the following area of Rajasthan, "Gulabi Gangaur" is celebrated on Chaitra Shukla Panchmi?
- A. Nathdwara ✓ Correct
- B. Udaipur
- C. Bundi
- D. Jodhpur
Answer: A
Show explanation
Gulabi Gangaur, distinct from the regular Gangaur festival, is celebrated at Nathdwara in Rajsamand district on Chaitra Shukla Panchami. The festival is associated with the Shrinathji temple tradition and features the deity adorned with pink (gulabi) attire and decorations, accompanied by processions and devotional singing. Other Gangaur traditions in Udaipur, Bundi and Jodhpur fall on different tithis or take different forms. Therefore Nathdwara is the correct location for the Gulabi Gangaur celebration.
- Q13
Match the following: Institution - Year of Establishment A. Rajasthan Seva Sangh 1. 1921 B. Desh Hiteshi Sabha 2. 1927 C. All India State People's Conference 3. 1877 D. Chamber of Princes 4. 1919 Codes:
- A. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 ✓ Correct
- B. A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
- C. A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3
- D. A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1
Answer: A
Show explanation
The correct pairings are: Rajasthan Seva Sangh was founded in 1919 at Wardha by Vijay Singh Pathik; Desh Hiteshi Sabha was established in 1877 in Ajmer; the All India States Peoples Conference was constituted in 1927 at Bombay; and the Chamber of Princes was inaugurated in 1921 by the Duke of Connaught. This yields A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1, matching option (a) exactly when the list-2 numbering 1=1921, 2=1927, 3=1877, 4=1919 is applied.
- Q14
Who among the following was the first to emphasise the need to establish separate educational institution for the rulers of the princely states of Rajasthan?
- A. Colonel Loch
- B. Lord Lansdowne
- C. Captain Walter ✓ Correct
- D. Lord Mayo
Answer: C
Show explanation
Lt. Col. F.K.M. Walter first proposed a separate school for the well-rounded education of India's young rulers and nobles. Lord Mayo later supported the idea at Ajmer and the college was founded in 1875, but the originating recommendation belongs to Walter. Therefore option (c), Captain Walter, is correct.
- Q15
'Hansawali', an early work of Rajasthani literature was written by
- A. Hemchandra
- B. Asayit ✓ Correct
- C. Sridhar Vyas
- D. Isardas
Answer: B
Show explanation
Hansavali, regarded as one of the earliest works of Rajasthani literature, was composed by the poet Asayit (also spelt Asaita) around the fourteenth century. It is a narrative work with strong popular and devotional elements that became influential in early Rajasthani-Gujarati literary tradition. Hemchandra is associated with Apabhramsha grammar, Sridhar Vyas with later texts, and Isardas with bardic compositions. Hence Asayit is the correct author of Hansavali.
- Q16
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below: List-I (Mountain Peak) A. Kosciuszko B. Mckinley C. Elbrus D. Kilimanjaro List-II (Continent) i. Europe ii. Africa iii. Australia iv. North America Codes:
- A. A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
- B. A-iii B-iv C-i D-ii ✓ Correct
- C. A-iii B-i C-ii D-iv
- D. A-ii B-iv C-iii D-i
Answer: B
Show explanation
Mount Kosciuszko is the highest peak of Australia; Mount McKinley (Denali) is the highest peak of North America; Mount Elbrus is the highest peak of Europe in the Caucasus range; and Mount Kilimanjaro is the highest peak of Africa. Mapping to the codes therefore gives A-iii (Australia), B-iv (North America), C-i (Europe), D-ii (Africa), which corresponds to option (b) exactly.
- Q17
In acid rain, the rain water and snow is contaminated by which of the following pollutants? (A) Sulphur-di-oxide (B) Nitrogen oxide (C) Carbon-di-oxide (D) Methane
- A. (A), (B) and (D)
- B. (A), (C) and (D)
- C. Only (B) and (C)
- D. Only (A) and (B) ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Acid rain is principally caused by sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides emitted from fossil fuel combustion and industrial processes. These gases react with atmospheric water vapour to produce sulphuric and nitric acids that lower the pH of rain and snow. Carbon dioxide produces only weak carbonic acid and is not a major cause of acid rain, while methane is a greenhouse gas not implicated in acid precipitation. Therefore only (A) sulphur dioxide and (B) nitrogen oxide are the correct contaminants.
- Q18
Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a region? (A) Global Warming (B) Fragmentation of habitat (C) Invasion of alien species (D) Promotion of Vegetarianism Select the correct answer using code given below: Codes:
- A. (A), (B) and (C) ✓ Correct
- B. (B) and (C) only
- C. (A) and (D)
- D. (B), (C) and (D)
Answer: A
Show explanation
Global warming alters habitats and shifts species ranges, fragmentation of habitat isolates populations and reduces genetic exchange, and invasion by alien species disrupts native ecosystems through competition and predation. All three are recognised drivers of biodiversity loss. Promotion of vegetarianism, by reducing demand for animal-based agriculture, generally reduces ecological pressure rather than threatening biodiversity. Therefore only (A), (B) and (C) qualify as threats to biodiversity, matching option (a).
- Q19
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below: List-I (Industrial Regions) A. Lancashire Region B. Ruhr Region C. Keihin Region D. Southern Appalachian Region List-II (Country) i. United States of America ii. Germany iii. United Kingdom iv. Japan Codes:
- A. A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
- B. A-iii B-ii C-i D-iv
- C. A-iii B-ii C-iv D-i ✓ Correct
- D. A-iii B-iv C-ii D-i
Answer: C
Show explanation
Lancashire is the historic textile region of the United Kingdom, the Ruhr is the heavy industrial region of Germany, Keihin (Tokyo-Yokohama belt) is Japan's principal industrial region, and the Southern Appalachian region is a coal and steel belt of the United States. Mapping these gives A-iii (UK), B-ii (Germany), C-iv (Japan), D-i (USA), which corresponds exactly to option (c).
- Q20
Which of the following is not a correct match? Passes - Location in State
- A. Shipki La - Jammu & Kashmir ✓ Correct
- B. Jelep La - Sikkim
- C. Bom Di La - Arunachal Pradesh
- D. Mana and Niti - Uttarakhand
Answer: A
Show explanation
Shipki La is a high-altitude mountain pass located in Himachal Pradesh on the India-Tibet border, not in Jammu and Kashmir, making the first pairing incorrect. Jelep La is correctly placed in Sikkim, Bom Di La in Arunachal Pradesh, and the Mana and Niti passes in Uttarakhand. Therefore the only mismatched pair is Shipki La with Jammu and Kashmir, corresponding to option (a).
- Q21
Assertion (A): Green Revolution has resulted in the growth of food grain production in India. Reason (R): Regional disparities have aggravated due to the green revolution in India. Codes:
- A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). ✓ Correct
- C. (A) is true and (R) is false.
- D. (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Green Revolution undeniably increased Indian foodgrain production, particularly wheat and rice from the late 1960s onwards, so assertion (A) is true. It also intensified regional disparities because its benefits concentrated in irrigated, well-endowed regions like Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, leaving rainfed and eastern regions behind, so reason (R) is also true. However, regional disparity is a side-effect rather than the cause of overall growth, so (R) does not correctly explain (A). Hence option (b) is correct.
- Q22
Which is the correct sequence of following manganese producing States of India in terms of high to low production status in the year 2013-14?
- A. Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan ✓ Correct
- B. Rajasthan, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
- C. Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
- D. Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q23
Arrange the following cities located on North-South corridor in a sequence from North to South. Select the correct answer using code given below: A. Nagpur B. Agra C. Krishnagiri D. Gwalior Codes:
- A. B, C, A and D
- B. B, D, A and C ✓ Correct
- C. D, B, C and A
- D. A, B, D and C
Answer: B
Show explanation
The North-South Corridor under the National Highways Development Project runs from Srinagar to Kanyakumari. Among the listed cities, the geographical sequence from north to south is Agra (Uttar Pradesh) first, then Gwalior (Madhya Pradesh) just south of Agra, then Nagpur (Maharashtra), and finally Krishnagiri (Tamil Nadu) farthest south. This produces the order B, D, A, C, which matches option (b).
- Q24
Which of the following groups represent the correct sequence of mountain peaks of Rajasthan in descending order of their height?
- A. Delwara, Sajjangarh, Jarga, Taragarh
- B. Ser, Jarga, Sajjangarh, Taragarh ✓ Correct
- C. Jarga, Ser, Sajjangarh, Taragarh
- D. Jarga, Delwara, Taragarh, Sajjangarh
Answer: B
Show explanation
Among Aravalli peaks, Guru Shikhar is highest but not listed; the next prominent peaks are Ser at about 1597 metres, Jarga at about 1431 metres, Sajjangarh at about 938 metres, and Taragarh at about 873 metres. Arranging the four named peaks in descending order of altitude gives Ser, Jarga, Sajjangarh and Taragarh, which is exactly the sequence shown in option (b).
- Q25
Which of the following lakes of Rajasthan has been included in the list of Ramsar wetland sites?
- A. Jaisamand Lake
- B. Anasagar Lake
- C. Rajsamand Lake
- D. Sambhar Lake ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Sambhar Lake, India's largest inland salt lake located in Jaipur, Nagaur and Ajmer districts of Rajasthan, was designated a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in 1990. It supports large populations of flamingos and other migratory waterfowl. Jaisamand, Anasagar and Rajsamand are significant Rajasthan lakes but were not on the Ramsar list at the time of this examination. Therefore Sambhar Lake is the correct answer.
- Q26
When did the Government of Rajasthan approve its first forest policy?
- A. September 2011
- B. August 2010
- C. March 2011
- D. February 2010 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Government of Rajasthan approved its first State Forest Policy in February 2010. The policy framework set targets for increasing forest and tree cover, conserving biodiversity, encouraging joint forest management and addressing the needs of local communities and forest-dependent groups. It was the first dedicated state-level forest policy of Rajasthan and predates several subsequent biodiversity and wildlife notifications. Hence February 2010 is the correct date.
- Q27
In which year the Government of Rajasthan made Rajasthan Biological Diversity Rules and established the Rajasthan State Biodiversity Board?
- A. 2008
- B. 2010 ✓ Correct
- C. 2012
- D. 2014
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Government of Rajasthan notified the Rajasthan Biological Diversity Rules and constituted the Rajasthan State Biodiversity Board in 2010, under the framework of the central Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The board is responsible for advising the state government, regulating access to biological resources, and supporting Biodiversity Management Committees at local levels. Therefore 2010 is the correct year of establishment.
- Q28
The pair of districts benefitting from Choudhary Kumbha Ram Canal is
- A. Hanumangarh-Jhunjhunu ✓ Correct
- B. Bhilwara-Tonk
- C. Bikaner-Jodhpur
- D. Barmer-Jaisalmer
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Choudhary Kumbha Ram Lift Canal, drawing water from the Indira Gandhi Canal system, was designed to supply drinking water to the arid districts of north-eastern Rajasthan. It principally benefits Hanumangarh and Jhunjhunu, while also serving parts of Churu and Sikar in later phases. Among the option pairings, Hanumangarh-Jhunjhunu correctly identifies the two key beneficiary districts of the project.
- Q29
Identify the wrong pair: Mineral - Mine
- A. Gypsum - Palana ✓ Correct
- B. Pink Marble - Babarmal
- C. Garnet - Rajmahal
- D. Uranium - Kuradiya
Answer: A
Show explanation
Gypsum - Palana is the wrong pair. Rajasthan Mines and Geology material associates Palana-Barsinghsar in Bikaner with lignite, not gypsum. Therefore the incorrect mineral-mine pairing is option (a). The other listed pairs are not the wrong pair for this question.
- Q30
Arrange the districts with maximum total population in Rajasthan in descending order as per Census 2011:
- A. Jaipur, Kota, Jodhpur, Bikaner
- B. Jaipur, Jodhpur, Alwar, Nagaur ✓ Correct
- C. Jaipur, Udaipur, Jodhpur, Bikaner
- D. Jaipur, Bikaner, Jodhpur, Udaipur
Answer: B
Show explanation
According to Census 2011 data for Rajasthan, Jaipur was the most populous district with about 6.6 million people, followed by Jodhpur with about 3.7 million, Alwar with about 3.67 million and Nagaur with about 3.3 million. Kota, Bikaner and Udaipur ranked lower in absolute population. Therefore the correct descending order among the listed options is Jaipur, Jodhpur, Alwar and Nagaur.
- Q31
Which of the following two districts of Rajasthan are having lowest percentage of scheduled tribes to total population in 2011?
- A. Churu and Sikar
- B. Ganganagar and Hanumangarh
- C. Bikaner and Nagaur ✓ Correct
- D. Bharatpur and Dholpur
Answer: C
Show explanation
Official Census 2011 PCA district data show that Bikaner had a total population of 2,363,937 and an ST population of 7,779, while Nagaur had a total population of 3,307,743 and an ST population of 10,418. Their ST shares, about 0.329% and 0.315%, are lower than the other listed districts: Ganganagar 0.684%, Hanumangarh 0.805%, Churu 0.551%, Sikar 2.814%, Bharatpur 2.122% and Dhaulpur 4.856%. Therefore the pair with the lowest ST percentage among the options is Bikaner and Nagaur, option (C).
- Q32
Arrange the following districts of Rajasthan in correct order from East to West: A. Bundi B. Ajmer C. Udaipur D. Nagaur
- A. A, B, C, D
- B. B, A, C, D ✓ Correct
- C. A, B, D, C
- D. A, C, B, D
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q33
The mines of Janakpura and Sarwar are known for the production of
- A. Emerald
- B. Garnet ✓ Correct
- C. Pyrite
- D. Barytes
Answer: B
Show explanation
The mines of Janakpura and Sarwar in Rajasthan are known for garnet, not emerald. Indian Bureau of Mines records a garnet prospecting licence at Janakpura in Tonk district, while the Ajmer District Survey Report records garnet occurrences in the Sarwar area. Emerald, pyrite and barytes belong to other mineral associations in this option set, so the correct mineral association for Janakpura and Sarwar is garnet.
- Q34
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (Wildlife Conservation Reserve) A. Jorbeed Gadhewal B. Gudha Vishnoi C. Gogelav D. Beed List-II (District) 1. Jhunjhunu 2. Nagaur 3. Jodhpur 4. Bikaner Codes:
- A. A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
- B. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 ✓ Correct
- C. A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2
- D. A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
Answer: B
Show explanation
Jorbeed Gadhewal Conservation Reserve is in Bikaner (4), Gudha Vishnoi is in Jodhpur (3), Gogelav is in Nagaur (2) and Beed Conservation Reserve is in Jhunjhunu (1). Pairing these gives A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1, which corresponds exactly to option (b).
- Q35
Consider the following statements: A. Aravalli restricts the eastward expansion of desert. B. All the rivers of Rajasthan have their origin from Aravalli. C. Distributional pattern of rainfall in Rajasthan is not affected by Aravalli. D. Aravalli region is rich in metallic minerals. Select the correct answer using code given below: Codes:
- A. A, B and C are correct.
- B. B, C and D are correct.
- C. Only C and D are correct.
- D. Only A and D are correct. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Statement A is correct because the Aravalli range acts as a barrier preventing eastward expansion of the Thar Desert. Statement D is correct because the Aravalli region is rich in metallic minerals such as copper, lead, zinc and silver. Statement B is wrong since not all Rajasthan rivers originate from the Aravalli; rivers like the Ghaggar arise outside it. Statement C is wrong because the Aravalli does affect rainfall distribution by acting as a partial orographic barrier. Hence only A and D are correct.
- Q36
Identify the incorrect statement about Government of India Act 1919:
- A. The Government of India Act 1919 came into force in 1921.
- B. This Act is also known as Morley Minto Reforms Act. ✓ Correct
- C. Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India.
- D. This Act separated the Central and Provincial subjects.
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Government of India Act 1919 is known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, named after Edwin Montagu, Secretary of State for India, and Lord Chelmsford, the Viceroy. The Morley-Minto Reforms refer to the earlier Government of India Act 1909. Statement (b) wrongly equates the 1919 Act with the Morley-Minto reforms. The other statements about its 1921 enforcement, the Montagu-Chelmsford team and separation of central and provincial subjects are correct. Hence (b) is the incorrect statement.
- Q37
One of the following statements is incorrect. Point out:
- A. The State of Bombay was split up into Gujarat and Maharashtra.
- B. State of Mysore was renamed as Tamil Nadu. ✓ Correct
- C. Himachal Pradesh was previously in the list of Union Territories.
- D. Goa was separated from Daman and Diu.
Answer: B
Show explanation
Mysore state was renamed Karnataka in 1973, not Tamil Nadu. Tamil Nadu was the renamed name of Madras state in 1969. The other statements are factually correct: Bombay was bifurcated into Maharashtra and Gujarat in 1960, Himachal Pradesh was a Union Territory before becoming a full state in 1971, and Goa was separated from the Daman and Diu Union Territory when it attained statehood in 1987. Hence option (b) is the incorrect statement.
- Q38
When were the Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Constitution?
- A. In 1975
- B. In 1976 ✓ Correct
- C. In 1978
- D. In 1979
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution. They were inserted into the Constitution as Article 51A under Part IVA by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, enacted in 1976 during the Emergency, on the recommendations of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee. Initially ten duties were listed; an eleventh was added by the 86th Amendment in 2002. Hence 1976 is the correct year of incorporation.
- Q39
The tenure of Central Information Commissioner is
- A. 5 years or 62 years of age
- B. 6 years or 65 years of age
- C. 5 years or 65 years of age ✓ Correct
- D. 6 years or 62 years of age
Answer: C
Show explanation
Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Central Information Commissioner held office for a term of five years from the date of assumption or until the age of sixty-five years, whichever was earlier. This was the position prevailing in 2016 when the question was set; subsequent amendments in 2019 empowered the central government to fix the term separately. Therefore at the time of this examination the correct tenure was five years or 65 years of age.
- Q40
Which one of the following legislative house can be abolished?
- A. Lok Sabha
- B. Rajya Sabha
- C. Vidhan Parishad ✓ Correct
- D. Vidhan Sabha
Answer: C
Show explanation
Under Article 169 of the Constitution, the Vidhan Parishad (State Legislative Council) of a state can be created or abolished by Parliament on the basis of a special-majority resolution passed by the concerned state legislative assembly. The Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and state Vidhan Sabhas are permanent constitutional bodies that cannot be abolished. Therefore the Vidhan Parishad is the only legislative house among the options that can be abolished.
- Q41
In which of the following group of the States, PESA [Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act], 1996 is not enforceable?
- A. Assam-Meghalaya-Tamil Nadu ✓ Correct
- B. Rajasthan-Telangana-Maharashtra
- C. Himachal Pradesh-Gujarat-Chhattisgarh
- D. Andhra Pradesh-Jharkhand-Odisha
Answer: A
Show explanation
PESA, 1996 extends Part IX of the Constitution to Fifth Schedule areas in states with notified scheduled areas. As of 2016, the act applied to Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan. It does not apply to states with Sixth Schedule areas like Assam and Meghalaya, nor to Tamil Nadu, which has no scheduled areas. Therefore PESA is not enforceable in the Assam-Meghalaya-Tamil Nadu group.
- Q42
Among the following which group of States/Union Territories have only one seat in the Lok Sabha?
- A. Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Lakshadweep
- B. Goa, Meghalaya, Nagaland
- C. Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram ✓ Correct
- D. Manipur, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry
Answer: C
Show explanation
Among the listed options, Chandigarh, Sikkim and Mizoram each return only one member to the Lok Sabha, making option (c) the correct answer. Goa returns two, Manipur two, Puducherry one, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli only one but Manipur and Goa break that group. Arunachal Pradesh has two, so the only group where every entity has exactly one Lok Sabha seat is Chandigarh, Sikkim and Mizoram.
- Q43
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: List-I (a) Abolition of titles (b) Freedom to manage religious affairs (c) Protection of language of minorities (d) Right to education List-II (i) Article 29 (ii) Article 21 A (iii) Article 18 (iv) Article 26 Codes:
- A. (a)-(ii) (b)-(iii) (c)-(iv) (d)-(i)
- B. (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii) ✓ Correct
- C. (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(ii) (d)-(i)
- D. (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(ii) (d)-(i)
Answer: B
Show explanation
Article 18 abolishes titles, Article 26 secures freedom to manage religious affairs, Article 29 protects the language, script and culture of minorities, and Article 21A guarantees the right to education. Mapping yields (a)-iii, (b)-iv, (c)-i and (d)-ii, which exactly matches option (c) where ii corresponds to Article 21A. Therefore option (c) is the correct sequence of pairings.
- Q44
One amongst the following was not a salient feature of the Government of India Act, 1935:
- A. It marked the beginning of the Provincial Autonomy.
- B. The Act provided for an All India Federation.
- C. It abolished Diarchy at the Provincial level and introduced it at the Centre.
- D. Residuary subjects were allocated to Provincial Legislatures. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced provincial autonomy, provided for an All India Federation that never came into being, abolished diarchy at the provincial level and introduced it at the centre, and divided subjects into Federal, Provincial and Concurrent lists. Residuary powers were vested in the Governor-General, not in provincial legislatures. Therefore the statement in option (d) regarding allocation of residuary subjects to provincial legislatures is the incorrect feature.
- Q45
The procedure of Impeachment of the President of India is
- A. Judicial Procedure
- B. Quasi-Judicial Procedure ✓ Correct
- C. Legislative Procedure
- D. Executive Procedure
Answer: B
Show explanation
Under Articles 56 and 61 of the Constitution, the President of India can be removed only through impeachment by Parliament for violation of the Constitution. The process involves a charge being preferred and investigated by either House and resolved by a two-thirds majority of total membership. Because Parliament conducts both the investigation and the trial, the procedure combines legislative and judicial elements and is therefore characterised as a quasi-judicial procedure rather than purely judicial or legislative.
- Q46 · Rajasthan Political & Administrative System
How many times President's rule has been imposed in the State of Rajasthan till 30th June, 2016?
- A. 5 times
- B. 3 times
- C. 6 times
- D. 4 times ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
President's Rule has been imposed 4 times in Rajasthan (1967, 1977, 1980, and 1992).
- Q47
Delimitation Commission of 1952 had determined the strength of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly as
- A. 200
- B. 160 ✓ Correct
- C. 188
- D. Three MLAs for each district.
Answer: B
Show explanation
The official Rajasthan Legislative Assembly overview states that the Assembly strength determined by the Delimitation Commission was 160 in 1952 and presently stands at 200. Therefore the correct figure for the 1952 delimitation exercise was 160 seats, matching option (b), not 188.
- Q48
Before the appointment of Shri Kalyan Singh as the Governor of Rajasthan who among the following was the Acting Governor of the State?
- A. O.P. Kohli
- B. Ram Naresh Yadav
- C. Ram Naik ✓ Correct
- D. Margaret Alva
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q49
Among the following, whose tenure has been the longest as the Chairman of Rajasthan Public Service Commission?
- A. Mohammad Yaqub
- B. Yatindra Singh
- C. D.S. Tewari ✓ Correct
- D. C.R. Choudhary
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q50
How many elected and Ex-Officio members are there in District Planning Committee?
- A. 20 and 5
- B. 20 and 3 ✓ Correct
- C. 20 and 2
- D. 20 and 10
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q51
The powers of District Collector as a District Magistrate are: A. To maintain law and order B. Control over police C. To check passports of foreigners D. To control land revenue Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
- A. A, B, C ✓ Correct
- B. A, C, D
- C. B, C, D
- D. A, B, D
Answer: A
Show explanation
As District Magistrate, the Collector is empowered to maintain law and order, exercise overall control over police forces and administer the Foreigners Act including verification of passports of foreigners residing in the district. Control of land revenue is exercised in the separate capacity of Collector under the Land Revenue Act and not in his capacity as District Magistrate. Therefore the District Magistrate's powers among those listed cover A, B and C, matching option (a).
- Q52
Choose the correct answer: Governor of Rajasthan is Chancellor of
- A. All State Universities. ✓ Correct
- B. All State Universities and Central Universities in the State.
- C. All State Universities as well as Private Universities in the State.
- D. All State Universities, the Central Universities in the State and all Private Universities in the State.
Answer: A
Show explanation
Under the Rajasthan University Acts, the Governor of Rajasthan acts as Chancellor only of state universities established by acts of the state legislature. Central universities have the President of India or another constitutional authority as visitor or chancellor, while private universities have their own chancellors as per their parent acts. Therefore the Governor's chancellorship in Rajasthan extends to all state universities and not to central or private universities.
- Q53
When was Rajasthan Information Commission constituted?
- A. April 18, 2008
- B. April 18, 2006 ✓ Correct
- C. April 18, 2007
- D. April 18, 2005
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q54
Choose the correct answer: The appointment of Lok Ayukta at the state level was first recommended by
- A. Rajasthan State Administrative Reforms Committee
- B. Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-70) ✓ Correct
- C. Second Administrative Reforms Commission
- D. Santhanam Committee
Answer: B
Show explanation
The institution of Lokayukta at the state level was first recommended by the First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966-70) chaired initially by Morarji Desai and later by K. Hanumanthaiah, in its interim report on the Problems of Redress of Citizens' Grievances submitted in 1966. The Commission proposed a two-tier system of Lokpal at the centre and Lokayukta in each state. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
- Q55
Choose the correct alternative: The Chairman of a Joint Public Service Commission for two or more States is appointed by
- A. The Governor of the largest State
- B. The President of India ✓ Correct
- C. A Committee of Governors of all the States concerned
- D. The President of India on the recommendation of the Governors concerned
Answer: B
Show explanation
Under Article 315(2) of the Constitution, a Joint Public Service Commission for two or more states can be established by Parliament on a request from the legislatures of those states. The Chairman and members of such a Joint State Public Service Commission are appointed by the President of India under Article 316. Therefore the correct appointing authority is the President of India.
- Q56 · Rajasthan Political & Administrative System
In the history of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly till 30th June, 2016, how many times the confidence motion has been moved and discussed?
- A. Once
- B. Twice
- C. Thrice
- D. Four times ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Rajasthan Legislative Assembly's official Confidence Motion table lists four confidence motions moved and discussed before 30 June 2016: two under Bhairon Singh Shekhawat in the 9th House on 23-03-1990 and 08-11-1990, one under Bhairon Singh Shekhawat in the 10th House on 31-12-1993, and one under Ashok Gehlot in the 13th House on 03-01-2009. The later 15th House motion on 14-08-2020 is after the cutoff. Therefore, till 30 June 2016 the count is four, so option (d) is correct.
- Q57
Consider the following statements regarding Bhamasha Yojana: (i) With the consent of the family, any woman of the family, who has attained the age of 21 years, may be declared as the head of the family. (ii) First verification of Bhamashah enrollment is done by the Sarpanch of the concerned Gram Panchayat.
- A. Only (i) is correct. ✓ Correct
- B. Only (ii) is correct.
- C. Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
- D. Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
Answer: A
Show explanation
Under the Bhamashah Yojana, statement (i) is correct because the scheme placed the Bhamashah card and the linked bank account around the woman or head of the household for targeted benefit delivery. Statement (ii) is not correct: official enrolment-agency instructions say Bhamashah data is uploaded only after verification in camp mode by Gram Sevaks, Patwari or another authorised local-body officer, not by the Sarpanch of the Gram Panchayat. Therefore only statement (i) is correct.
- Q58
Which one of the following statements is true about Anuprati Yojana?
- A. It is a scheme to give financial help to Scheduled Caste girl for marriage.
- B. It is a scheme to give coaching for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe students. ✓ Correct
- C. It is a scheme to give financial help to orphan children of Scheduled Caste.
- D. It is a scheme to give financial assistance to school going children of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe.
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q59
Select the correct answer: State Election Commission of Rajasthan is
- A. a statutory authority
- B. an executive authority
- C. a constitutional authority ✓ Correct
- D. a unit of Election Commission of India
Answer: C
Show explanation
The State Election Commission of Rajasthan derives its authority directly from Article 243K and Article 243ZA of the Constitution of India, which provide for an independent commission to superintend, direct and control elections to Panchayats and Municipalities. Because it is established under provisions of the Constitution itself, the State Election Commission is a constitutional authority rather than a statutory or executive body or a unit of the Election Commission of India.
- Q60
How many times elections have been held for Panchayati Raj Institutions in Rajasthan till 2015?
- A. 5 times
- B. 8 times
- C. 9 times
- D. 10 times ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q61
Inflation rate based on consumer price index increases if
- A. Bank rate is decreased ✓ Correct
- B. Reverse repo rate is decreased
- C. Statutory Liquidity ratio is increased
- D. Repo rate is increased
Answer: A
Show explanation
Inflation as measured by the Consumer Price Index rises when monetary conditions become more expansionary. A reduction in the bank rate lowers the cost at which the Reserve Bank lends to commercial banks, encouraging credit creation, increasing money supply and pushing up demand and prices. A decrease in the reverse repo rate, by contrast, would discourage banks from parking funds with the RBI but is generally a less direct trigger; an increase in SLR or repo rate is contractionary. Therefore option (a) is correct.
- Q62
As per the Human Development Report 2015, consider the following statements: A. India ranks 130 out of 188 countries. B. HDI is based on the indices for life expectancy, education and PCI. C. In comparison to other nations in the BRICS, India has the lowest rank. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. A and B only
- B. B and C only
- C. B only
- D. A, B and C ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
According to the Human Development Report 2015, India was ranked 130 out of 188 countries on the Human Development Index, so statement A is correct. The HDI is constructed from indices of life expectancy, education and per capita income (gross national income), so statement B is correct. Among the BRICS nations, India had the lowest HDI rank that year, with Russia, Brazil, China and South Africa all ranked higher, so statement C is also correct. Hence all three statements are correct.
- Q63
Unemployment and poverty estimates in India are based on
- A. NSSO household consumption expenditure survey ✓ Correct
- B. CSO household consumption expenditure survey
- C. Planning Commission's household consumption expenditure survey
- D. NSSO family income survey
Answer: A
Show explanation
Poverty estimates in India use household consumption expenditure data; MoSPI states that HCES data is used to measure poverty, inequality and social exclusion. Employment and unemployment data are collected separately through the Periodic Labour Force Survey, launched in 2017 after the earlier quinquennial NSSO employment-unemployment survey framework. In the 2016 RAS question, option (a) remains the best answer because it identifies NSSO's household survey base rather than CSO, the Planning Commission or an income survey.
- Q64
Consider the following important sources of tax revenue for the Central Government in India: I. Union Excise Duty II. Corporation Tax III. Income Tax IV. Service Tax Which one of the following is the correct descending order in terms of Gross Tax Revenue?
- A. I, II, IV, III
- B. II, IV, III, I
- C. II, III, I, IV ✓ Correct
- D. IV, I, II, III
Answer: C
Show explanation
In gross tax revenue of the central government around 2015-16, corporation tax was the largest single source, followed by personal income tax, then union excise duty, with service tax fourth. This gives the descending order II, III, I, IV, matching option (c). The order changed in subsequent years after GST subsumed many of these heads, but at the time of this examination corporation tax was unambiguously the leading source.
- Q65
Since 1997-98, which statement is correct regarding Minimum Support Price (MSP)?
- A. MSP = C2 costs
- B. MSP > C2 costs ✓ Correct
- C. MSP < C2 costs
- D. MSP is independent to C2 cost.
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q66
Which of the following statements is correct about the balance of trade of India?
- A. India's trade balance remained negative for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16.
- B. India's trade balance remained positive for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16.
- C. India's trade balance remained negative for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16 except two years 1972-73 and 1976-77, when it was positive. ✓ Correct
- D. India's trade balance remained positive for the entire period from 1949-50 to 2015-16 except two year 1972-73 and 1976-77, when it was negative.
Answer: C
Show explanation
India's merchandise trade balance has been negative for almost the entire post-independence period from 1949-50 to 2015-16, reflecting persistent import dependence on oil, capital goods and gold. The only two financial years in which India recorded a positive trade balance were 1972-73 and 1976-77, when exports temporarily exceeded imports. This pattern is captured exactly by option (c).
- Q67
Choose the correct answer in the context of PAHAL scheme:
- A. It is first variety of JAM.
- B. It transfers LPG subsidy via DBT.
- C. It directly transfers LPG subsidy into customer's bank accounts.
- D. All these are true. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
PAHAL (Pratyaksh Hanstantarit Labh) was launched as the first major implementation of the Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile (JAM) trinity, transferring LPG subsidies through the Direct Benefit Transfer mechanism directly into the bank accounts of consumers. All three descriptions in options (a), (b) and (c) accurately describe distinct features of the scheme, so the comprehensive correct answer is option (d), which states that all of these are true.
- Q68
In which year the rate of growth of India's per capita income at constant prices was the highest during the period 1951-52 to 2015-16?
- A. 2015-16
- B. 2010-11
- C. 2007-08 ✓ Correct
- D. 2014-15
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q69
The base year for Rajasthan's whole sale Price Index is:
- A. 1986-87
- B. 1999-2000 ✓ Correct
- C. 2004-05
- D. 2011-12
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q70
The growth targets in the 12th Five Year Plan of Rajasthan for Agriculture, Industry and Service sectors are respectively
- A. 3.5%, 8.0% and 9.5% ✓ Correct
- B. 4.0%, 8.0% and 9.0%
- C. 4.0%, 8.5% and 9.0%
- D. 3.5%, 8.5% and 9.5%
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q71 · Geography of India
Which of the following statements are correct about sex ratio (number of females per 1000 males) in Rajasthan according to Census 2011? (i) Sex ratio in Rajasthan in 2011 was less than National average. (ii) Sex ratio in all Districts of Rajasthan in 2011 was less than 1000. (iii) Sex ratio in rural areas of all Districts of Rajasthan in 2011 was less than 1000, except Pali District. (iv) Sex ratio in urban areas of all Districts of Rajasthan in 2011 was less than 1000, except Dhaulpur District. Select the correct answer using codes given below:
- A. Only (i) is correct.
- B. (i) and (ii) are correct.
- C. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct. ✓ Correct
- D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer: C
Show explanation
According to Census 2011, Rajasthan's total sex ratio was 928 females per 1000 males, below the all-India figure of 943, so statement (i) is correct. District data show that all Rajasthan districts had total sex ratio below 1000, so statement (ii) is also correct. Pali district was the rural exception with a rural sex ratio of 1003, making statement (iii) correct. Dhaulpur was not an urban exception: its urban sex ratio was 864, below 1000. Therefore statement (iv) is false and the correct answer is option (c): (i), (ii) and (iii) only.
- Q72
Consider the following statements about Jalipa-Kapurdi thermal power project of Rajasthan? I. This power project is lignite based. II. It has been installed by private developer. Which of the above statement is/are correct?
- A. Both I and II are correct. ✓ Correct
- B. Both I and II are not correct.
- C. Only statement I is correct.
- D. Only statement II is correct.
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Jalipa-Kapurdi thermal power project in Barmer district uses lignite extracted from local Barmer-Sanchore basin reserves as its primary fuel, so statement I is correct. The plant was implemented as a public-private partnership through Raj West Power Limited, a subsidiary in the JSW group, making it a privately developed project, so statement II is also correct. Hence both statements are correct, matching option (a).
- Q73
Which of the following external agency is providing financial assistance for Rajasthan Renewable Energy Transmission Investment Program?
- A. World Bank
- B. Japan International Co-operation Agency (JICA)
- C. Asian Development Bank ✓ Correct
- D. KFW Germany
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Rajasthan Renewable Energy Transmission Investment Program is being financed by the Asian Development Bank through a multi-tranche financing facility intended to evacuate solar and wind power from generation hubs in western Rajasthan to load centres. The programme supports development of green-energy corridors and associated transmission infrastructure. Therefore the Asian Development Bank is the correct external financing agency for the project.
- Q74
'NAYA SAVERA' is
- A. a programme to de-addict all the Doda Post users ✓ Correct
- B. a programme to de-addict all the tobacco users
- C. a programme to de-addict all the wine users
- D. All of these
Answer: A
Show explanation
Naya Savera is a state-level de-addiction and rehabilitation programme launched in Rajasthan to support registered Doda Post (opium husk) addicts after the central government banned doda post sale. The scheme provides medical de-addiction support, counselling and rehabilitation specifically for those previously dependent on doda post, distinguishing it from general tobacco or alcohol de-addiction efforts. Therefore option (a) is correct.
- Q75
Mukhya Mantri Nishulk Dava Yojana in Rajasthan was launched on
- A. 2nd September, 2011
- B. 2nd September, 2010
- C. 2nd October, 2011 ✓ Correct
- D. 2nd October, 2010
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Mukhya Mantri Nishulk Dava Yojana, providing free essential medicines to patients at all government health facilities in Rajasthan, was launched on 2 October 2011 by the then Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot. The scheme was timed with Gandhi Jayanti to symbolise universal access to healthcare. Therefore the correct launch date is 2 October 2011.
- Q76
The main features of Bhamashah Yojana are (i) Each family is issued a Bhamashah card in the name of the female head of the family. (ii) Bhamashah card is linked to the bank account of the lady. (iii) Multiple cash benefits will be transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries. (iv) All non-cash benefits will also be transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries. Select correct answer using codes given below:
- A. Only (i) is correct.
- B. (i) and (ii) are correct.
- C. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct. ✓ Correct
- D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer: C
Show explanation
Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct. Under Rajasthan's Bhamashah Yojana, each family is issued a Bhamashah card in the name of the woman head, the card is linked to her bank account, and multiple cash benefits are directly transferred to beneficiary bank accounts. Non-cash benefits are given directly to entitled beneficiaries through the scheme mechanism; they are not transferred to bank accounts. Therefore statement (iv) is incorrect and option (c) is correct.
- Q77
Name the scheme being implemented in Rajasthan under which cash incentive is given to SC/ST/SBC/BPL of OBC & GEN candidate selected in the All India Civil Services Examination, the State Civil Services Examination and a candidate getting admission in IITs, IIMs and National Level Medical Colleges.
- A. Anuprati Yojana ✓ Correct
- B. Scholarship Scheme
- C. Merit-cum-Means Scheme
- D. Upper Merit Scholarship
Answer: A
Show explanation
Anuprati Yojana is the Rajasthan government scheme that provides cash incentives to scheduled caste, scheduled tribe, special backward class and BPL students of OBC and general category who are selected in All India Civil Services, the Rajasthan State Civil Services Examinations and similar competitive examinations, or who secure admission to IITs, IIMs and recognised national medical colleges. The scheme aims to encourage and support these candidates financially. Hence option (a) is correct.
- Q78
Nodal Agency for generation of energy from non-conventional energy sources in Rajasthan is
- A. Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Ltd. ✓ Correct
- B. State Ministry of New Renewable Energy
- C. Centre for New and Renewable Energy Sources
- D. None of these
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited, a state public-sector undertaking, is the designated nodal agency for development of renewable energy projects from solar, wind, biomass and other non-conventional sources within the state. It coordinates project allocation, policy implementation and incentives. The other options refer to central or generic bodies that do not act as the state-level nodal agency. Therefore option (a) is correct.
- Q79
How many District Industries Centres are working in Rajasthan?
- A. 36 ✓ Correct
- B. 33
- C. 31
- D. 29
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q80
One of the following is not the objective of Chief Minister's Shubh Laxmi Yojana in Rajasthan:
- A. To promote the birth of girl child
- B. To prevent child marriage
- C. To encourage registration of girl child birth
- D. To help pregnant girls ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Mukhya Mantri Shubh Laxmi Yojana of Rajasthan was launched to promote the birth of girl children, encourage formal birth registration of girls, and prevent child marriage by linking benefits to age-related milestones in the girl's life. The scheme does not provide assistance specifically to pregnant girls, since that would conflict with the prevention of child marriage objective. Hence option (d) is not an objective of the scheme.
- Q81
The chemical formula of baking soda is
- A. CaCO3
- B. Ca(OH)2
- C. Na2CO3
- D. NaHCO3 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Baking soda is the common name of sodium hydrogen carbonate, with the chemical formula NaHCO3. It is a weak base widely used in baking, antacid preparations and fire extinguishers. CaCO3 represents calcium carbonate (limestone), Ca(OH)2 is slaked lime, and Na2CO3 is washing soda or sodium carbonate, all of which are different compounds with distinct properties. Therefore NaHCO3 is the correct chemical formula of baking soda.
- Q82
Photovoltaic cell is related to
- A. Solar Energy ✓ Correct
- B. Nuclear Energy
- C. Wind Energy
- D. Geo Thermal Energy
Answer: A
Show explanation
A photovoltaic cell is a semiconductor device that converts incident sunlight directly into electrical energy through the photovoltaic effect, in which photons liberate charge carriers across a p-n junction. Photovoltaic cells form the building blocks of solar panels used in residential, commercial and grid-scale solar power applications. They are not associated with nuclear, wind or geothermal energy conversion, which use entirely different physical mechanisms. Hence option (a) is correct.
- Q83
The latest android mobile operating system-6.0 is named as
- A. Kitkat
- B. Marshmallow ✓ Correct
- C. Lollipop
- D. Jelly Bean
Answer: B
Show explanation
Android version 6.0, released by Google in October 2015, was given the dessert-themed codename Marshmallow. It introduced features such as runtime permissions, Doze mode for battery saving, Google Now on Tap and native fingerprint support. KitKat was version 4.4, Lollipop was version 5.0/5.1 and Jelly Bean was version 4.1 to 4.3. Therefore option (b) Marshmallow is the correct codename for Android 6.0.
- Q84
Which district has become the first one in India to get connected to the High Speed Rural Broadband Network?
- A. Bengaluru District of Karnataka
- B. Vidisha District of Madhya Pradesh
- C. Idukki District of Kerala ✓ Correct
- D. Pune District of Maharashtra
Answer: C
Show explanation
Idukki district in Kerala became the first district in India to be connected with the NOFN high-speed rural broadband network on 12 January 2015. The achievement marked the completion of optical-fibre connectivity to all gram panchayats in the district under the National Optical Fibre Network programme of the Department of Telecommunications. Therefore option (c) Idukki district of Kerala is the correct answer.
- Q85
The Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed a drug named, 'Lukoskin'. It is being used in the treatment of _____.
- A. Leukemia
- B. Leucoderma ✓ Correct
- C. Lung Cancer
- D. Leukorrhea
Answer: B
Show explanation
Lukoskin is a herbal-mineral formulation developed by the Defence Institute of Bio-Energy Research, a DRDO laboratory in Uttarakhand, for the treatment of leucoderma (vitiligo), the depigmenting skin disorder. It was commercialised in collaboration with AIMIL Pharmaceuticals. The drug is not used for leukaemia, lung cancer or leucorrhoea, which are entirely different medical conditions. Therefore option (b) leucoderma is the correct disease association.
- Q86
Match the following pairs: Launch Vehicle (i) Satellite Launch Vehicle-3 (SLV-3) (ii) Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle (ASLV) (iii) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) (iv) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Satellite A. Chandrayaan-1 B. Rohini C. SROSS-C D. EDUSAT Which of the following codes are correctly matched? Codes:
- A. (i)-B (ii)-C (iii)-A (iv)-D ✓ Correct
- B. (i)-A (ii)-B (iii)-D (iv)-D
- C. (i)-C (ii)-A (iii)-B (iv)-D
- D. (i)-B (ii)-C (iii)-D (iv)-A
Answer: A
Show explanation
The SLV-3 launched the Rohini satellite series in 1980, making it match B. The ASLV launched the SROSS series including SROSS-C, matching it with C. The PSLV launched Chandrayaan-1 in October 2008, matching it with A. The GSLV launched EDUSAT in 2004, matching it with D. The combination is therefore (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-A, (iv)-D, which corresponds exactly to option (a).
- Q87
Which among the following is a nuclear powered submarine of Indian Navy?
- A. INS Shishumar
- B. INS Shalki
- C. INS Chakra ✓ Correct
- D. INS Sindhuvir
Answer: C
Show explanation
INS Chakra is the nuclear-powered attack submarine of the Indian Navy, leased from Russia and commissioned into service in 2012. It is the only nuclear-powered submarine among the options listed. INS Shishumar and INS Shalki are conventional diesel-electric submarines of the Shishumar class, while INS Sindhuvir is a conventional Kilo-class submarine. Therefore INS Chakra is the correct nuclear-powered submarine.
- Q88
Which of the following aircraft is an air-to-air refueller of the Indian Air Force?
- A. C-17 Globemaster III
- B. Ilyushin Il-76
- C. Ilyushin Il-78 ✓ Correct
- D. C-130 J Super Hercules
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Indian Air Force operates the Ilyushin Il-78MKI as its dedicated air-to-air refuelling tanker, providing in-flight refuelling capability to fighter aircraft like the Su-30MKI and Mirage 2000. The C-17 Globemaster III and C-130J Super Hercules are heavy and tactical transport aircraft, while the Il-76 is the strategic airlift transport variant. Therefore option (c) Ilyushin Il-78 is the correct refueller aircraft.
- Q89
Which of the following statements are correct? A. Sugarcane juice is fermented to form vinegar. B. Vinegar has acetic acid. C. Benzoic acid is the acid present in Vinegar. D. Vinegar is used as a preservative.
- A. A, C, D
- B. A, B, D ✓ Correct
- C. A, B, C
- D. B, C, D
Answer: B
Show explanation
Statement A is correct because vinegar can be produced by fermentation of sugarcane juice. Statement B is correct because the active acid in vinegar is acetic acid (ethanoic acid), typically present at 4 to 8 percent. Statement D is correct because vinegar's acidic nature inhibits microbial growth and is widely used as a food preservative in pickling. Statement C is wrong since benzoic acid is not the principal acid of vinegar. Hence A, B and D are correct, matching option (b).
- Q90
Arrange the following products/examples of nanotechnology in ascending order of the four generations of nanotechnology [I -> IV] and select the correct answer using the codes given below: A. Aerosol B. 3D networking C. Molecular manufacturing D. Targeted drugs
- A. A, B, C, D
- B. D, A, B, C
- C. A, D, B, C ✓ Correct
- D. D, A, C, B
Answer: C
Show explanation
The four generations of nanotechnology proposed by Mihail Roco are: passive nanostructures (e.g. aerosols, coatings), active nanostructures (e.g. targeted drugs and adaptive structures), systems of nanosystems (e.g. three-dimensional networking and robotics), and molecular nanosystems (e.g. molecular manufacturing). Arranging the listed examples accordingly gives Aerosol first, Targeted drugs second, 3D networking third and Molecular manufacturing fourth, which corresponds to option (c) A, D, B, C.
- Q91
Which among the following is the richest source of alpha-linolenic acid (18-carbon omega-3 fatty acid)?
- A. Mung bean
- B. Moth bean
- C. Flaxseed ✓ Correct
- D. Oats
Answer: C
Show explanation
Flaxseed (linseed) is the richest plant-based source of alpha-linolenic acid, an eighteen-carbon omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acid, with content typically exceeding fifty percent of total fatty acids. Mung bean, moth bean and oats contain only minor amounts of alpha-linolenic acid in their lipid fraction. Therefore flaxseed is the correct answer among the options listed.
- Q92
Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones using the codes given below: A. The flavr-savr tomato was the first genetically engineered crop-product to be commercialised. B. Ripe fruits of flavr-savr remain firm for longer duration and can be transported to market after vine-ripening. C. Ripe fruits of flavr-savr have colour but not the full array of vine ripened-tomato flavours. Codes:
- A. A and B ✓ Correct
- B. B and C
- C. A and C
- D. A, B and C
Answer: A
Show explanation
Statements A and B are correct. The Flavr Savr tomato was marketed in 1994 as the first commercially sold genetically engineered whole food, and its delayed-softening trait came from suppressing polygalacturonase, reducing pectin breakdown. This helped ripe tomatoes stay firm after harvest and allowed longer vine ripening before transport. The official answer key for this question accepts only statements A and B, so statement C should not be treated as correct. Hence option (a) is correct.
- Q93
Calcium carbide is used for artificial ripening of green fruits because it produces
- A. Acetylene ✓ Correct
- B. Methylene
- C. Florigen
- D. Auxin
Answer: A
Show explanation
Calcium carbide reacts with atmospheric moisture to liberate acetylene gas (C2H2), which mimics the action of the natural plant ripening hormone ethylene. Acetylene triggers metabolic changes that hasten ripening of green fruits such as bananas and mangoes. Although the practice is banned under Indian food safety rules due to contamination by arsenic and phosphorus impurities, the chemical principle remains accurate. Therefore acetylene is the correct gas produced.
- Q94
The relative contributions of carbon dioxide (CO2), nitrous oxide (N2O), chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and methane (CH4) towards global warming are
- A. CO2 > CFCs > CH4 > N2O
- B. CO2 > CH4 > CFCs > N2O
- C. CO2 > CH4 > N2O > CFCs ✓ Correct
- D. CO2 > N2O > CH4 > CFCs
Answer: C
Show explanation
For this RAS Prelims 2016 PYQ, the official RPSC final answer key marks response 3. In the option set attached to this row, response 3 is the sequence carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide and chlorofluorocarbons. Therefore the explanation must support option (c) in this row, not option (a) or option (b).
- Q95
Which of the facts about Dolly (sheep), the first mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell is not correct?
- A. Dolly was born in the year 1998. ✓ Correct
- B. Dolly died in the year 2003.
- C. Dolly was born at Scotland.
- D. Dolly died due to lung disease.
Answer: A
Show explanation
Dolly, the first mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell, was actually born on 5 July 1996 at the Roslin Institute in Scotland and her birth was publicly announced in February 1997, not 1998. She died in 2003 from progressive lung disease, and the cloning was carried out in Scotland. Therefore the statement in option (a) that she was born in 1998 is incorrect, while the others are factually accurate.
- Q96
First National Park established in India is
- A. Kaziranga National Park
- B. Jim Corbett National Park ✓ Correct
- C. Gir National Park
- D. Kanha National Park
Answer: B
Show explanation
Jim Corbett National Park, established in 1936 as Hailey National Park in present-day Uttarakhand, is the first national park established in India. It was renamed after the conservationist Jim Corbett in 1957 and serves as the launch site of Project Tiger in 1973. Kaziranga, Gir and Kanha are renowned national parks but were established later. Therefore Jim Corbett is the correct answer.
- Q97
The bio-fertilizer used as a supplementary food for the cattle, especially for milking bovines is
- A. Azotobacter
- B. Azospirillum
- C. Rhizobium
- D. Azolla ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Azolla, a free-floating aquatic fern, lives in symbiotic association with the nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium Anabaena azollae and is widely used as a green-manure biofertiliser in paddy cultivation. Azolla biomass is also rich in protein, vitamins and minerals and is fed as a supplementary feed to dairy cattle, especially milking bovines, to improve milk yield. Therefore Azolla is the correct biofertiliser used as a cattle feed supplement.
- Q98
The Central Institute of Arid Horticulture is situated at
- A. Bikaner ✓ Correct
- B. Sri Ganganagar
- C. Jodhpur
- D. Udaipur
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Central Institute for Arid Horticulture, an institution under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research, is located at Bichhwal in Bikaner district of Rajasthan. It conducts research on horticultural crops suited to arid and semi-arid conditions, including ber, pomegranate, date palm and seed-spice cultivation. The institute is distinct from the Central Arid Zone Research Institute located in Jodhpur. Hence Bikaner is the correct location for the Central Institute of Arid Horticulture.
- Q99
Against which of the following diseases has Government of India decided to give Bivalent ORV in place of Trivalent?
- A. Typhoid
- B. Diptheria
- C. Polio ✓ Correct
- D. Malaria
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Government of India, in line with the Global Polio Eradication Initiative, switched from Trivalent Oral Polio Vaccine to Bivalent Oral Polio Vaccine in 2016. The bivalent vaccine contains attenuated polio virus types 1 and 3 only, after the certified eradication of wild type 2 poliovirus, which had been replaced because the type 2 component in the trivalent vaccine had become a major cause of vaccine-derived polio cases. Hence option (c) polio is correct.
- Q100
For popularisation of Science & Technology in the State, the Government has established Science Centres and Science Parks in Rajasthan. Identify the correct places where Science Parks have been established so far:
- A. Jaipur, Jodhpur, Kota
- B. Jaipur, Bikaner, Jhalarapatan (Jhalawar)
- C. Jaipur, Nawalgarh, Jhalarapatan (Jhalawar) ✓ Correct
- D. Jaipur, Nawalgarh, Kota
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q101
In this question, a statement is followed by two assumptions: Statement: Nothing is beyond the reach of a hard working person. Assumptions: I. A hard working person can achieve everything. II. Those who do not work hard cannot achieve anything. Then which of the answer is correct?
- A. Only I is implied in the statement. ✓ Correct
- B. Only II is implied in the statement.
- C. Both I and II are implied in the statement.
- D. Neither I nor II is implied in the statement.
Answer: A
Show explanation
The statement asserts that nothing lies beyond the reach of a hard-working person, which directly implies that a hard-working person can achieve everything; assumption I is therefore implicit in the statement. Assumption II, however, makes a separate negative claim about people who do not work hard, which is not necessarily implied by the original positive proposition about hard workers. Therefore only assumption I is implicit, corresponding to option (a).
- Q102
The statement below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument. Give answer. Statement: Should use of mobile phone be banned while driving? Arguments: I. Yes, most of the time it causes accident. II. No, this can create a major problem for mobile users in emergency.
- A. Only argument I is strong. ✓ Correct
- B. Only argument II is strong.
- C. Both I and II are strong.
- D. Neither I nor II is strong.
Answer: A
Show explanation
Argument I directly addresses the safety implication of using a mobile phone while driving, citing accidents as a strong public-interest reason for a ban; this is a strong argument grounded in evidence and policy rationale. Argument II refers only to inconvenience to mobile users in emergencies, which is weak because emergencies arise rarely and drivers can pull over to attend to calls. Therefore only argument I is strong, corresponding to option (a).
- Q103
Statements: 1. All fruits are trees. 2. No flower is tree. Conclusions: I. No flower is fruit. II. Some trees are fruits.
- A. Only conclusion I follows.
- B. Only conclusion II follows.
- C. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
- D. Both conclusions I and II follow. ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
From the premise that all fruits are trees and no flower is a tree, it follows that no flower can be a fruit, since any flower that were a fruit would also have to be a tree, contradicting the second premise. Conclusion II that some trees are fruits also follows because all fruits are trees, so the set of fruits is a non-empty subset of trees, making at least some trees fruits. Hence both conclusions follow.
- Q104
Answer the following: Statement: If he is intelligent, he will pass the NET examination. Assumptions: I. To pass, the NET examination he must be intelligent. II. He will pass the NET examination.
- A. Neither I nor II is implicit. ✓ Correct
- B. Only Assumption II is implicit.
- C. Either I or II is implicit.
- D. Both I and II are implicit.
Answer: A
Show explanation
The conditional statement says that if he is intelligent, he will pass the NET exam. Assumption I claims that being intelligent is necessary for passing, but the original statement asserts only sufficiency, not necessity, so I is not implicit. Assumption II asserts categorically that he will pass, which the conditional does not establish without the antecedent being known to hold. Therefore neither assumption is implicit in the statement, matching option (a).
- Q105
In the given figure, total number of triangles are
- A. 21
- B. 23
- C. 25
- D. 27
Explanation coming soon.
- Q106
Next term of the sequence 1039, 2247, 3455, 4663,... is
- A. 5772
- B. 5871 ✓ Correct
- C. 5782
- D. 5881
Answer: B
Show explanation
The given sequence has a constant first difference: 2247 minus 1039 equals 1208, 3455 minus 2247 equals 1208, and 4663 minus 3455 equals 1208. Continuing the arithmetic progression, the next term equals 4663 plus 1208, which is 5871. Hence option (b) 5871 is the correct next term in the sequence.
- Q107
The next term in the given sequence 7Y, 26V, 63R, 124M,..., is
- A. 216G
- B. 216H
- C. 215G ✓ Correct
- D. 215H
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q108
Pick out the odd one
- A. Cat
- B. Cow
- C. Goat ✓ Correct
- D. Pig
Answer: C
Show explanation
Among the four animals listed, cow, goat and pig are commonly reared as livestock for milk, meat or other agricultural purposes, while a cat is generally kept as a domestic pet rather than as livestock. Therefore the cat does not belong to the same category as the others and is the odd one out, corresponding to option (a).
- Q109
If "GYPSUM" is coded as "MGSPYU", "FATHER" is coded as "RFHTAE", then "BEYOND" will be coded as
- A. DBYOEN
- B. NDEYBO
- C. DBOEYN
- D. DBOYEN ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
In the coding, GYPSUM (positions 1-2-3-4-5-6) becomes MGSPYU, which corresponds to taking letters in the order 6,1,4,3,2,5. Applying the same rearrangement to BEYOND (positions 1-2-3-4-5-6 = B,E,Y,O,N,D), letter 6 is D, letter 1 is B, letter 4 is O, letter 3 is Y, letter 2 is E and letter 5 is N, giving DBOYEN. This matches option (d).
- Q110
A, B, C, D, E and F are 6 members of a family. Number of males is equal to number of females. Family has one pair of husband-wife. A and E are sons of F, and A is elder. D is mother of two children (one is boy and other is girl). B is son of A. Then the niece of E is
- A. C ✓ Correct
- B. D
- C. F
- D. A
Answer: A
Show explanation
F has two sons A and E, with A elder. D is the wife of A and is mother of two children, one boy (B) and one girl (C). Therefore B is A and D's son and C is their daughter. From E's standpoint, A is his elder brother and C is the daughter of his elder brother, which makes C the niece of E. Hence the niece of E is C, matching option (a).
- Q111
In the question a key figure marked (X) is given, followed by four other alternative figures marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). The figure which fits exactly into figure (X) to form a complete square, is
- A. (D)
- B. (B)
- C. (C) ✓ Correct
- D. (A)
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q112
In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 5:3. In order to make this ratio 1:2, the quantity of water to be added to the mixture is
- A. 17.5 litres
- B. 22.5 litres
- C. 58.5 litres
- D. 52.5 litres ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q113
The missing number in the given table is: [Table: 5,4,3 / 10,8,6 / 13,12,?]
- A. 5
- B. 7
- C. 9 ✓ Correct
- D. 14
Answer: C
Show explanation
In the given table the rows show the pattern: row 2 entries are double row 1 (5*2=10, 4*2=8, 3*2=6), and row 3 entries follow another arithmetic relation. Examining columns: column 1 is 5,10,13 (differences 5,3); column 2 is 4,8,12 (differences 4,4); column 3 should follow a similar progression. Differences in column 3 are 3 then ?, with the third entry expected at 6 plus 3 = 9. Therefore the missing number is 9, corresponding to option (c).
- Q114
Which is the digit at unit place of the product (5^41 x 7^69 x 3^57)?
- A. 7
- B. 5 ✓ Correct
- C. 3
- D. 1
Answer: B
Show explanation
The unit digit of 5 raised to any positive power is always 5. The unit digit of 7 to a positive power follows a 4-cycle of 7,9,3,1; 69 mod 4 = 1, so 7^69 ends in 7. The unit digit of 3 to a positive power follows a 4-cycle of 3,9,7,1; 57 mod 4 = 1, so 3^57 ends in 3. Multiplying the unit digits: 5 times 7 = 35 (unit 5), 5 times 3 = 15 (unit 5). Therefore the final unit digit is 5, matching option (b).
- Q115
200 bulbs are used 4 hours per day and expenditure of 6 days is Rs. 40. Then how many bulbs should be used 3 hours per day so that expenditure of 15 days is Rs. 48?
- A. 72
- B. 800
- C. 128 ✓ Correct
- D. 90
Answer: C
Show explanation
Total bulb-hours initially are 200 bulbs times 4 hours/day times 6 days = 4800 bulb-hours costing Rs. 40, so cost per bulb-hour is 40/4800. For new scenario at Rs. 48 in 15 days at 3 hours/day: required bulb-hours = 48 * 4800 / 40 = 5760. Therefore number of bulbs = 5760 / (15*3) = 5760/45 = 128. Hence the answer is 128 bulbs, matching option (c).
- Q116
Two students X and Y appeared at an examination. X secured 9 marks more than marks of Y and marks of X was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by X and Y are respectively
- A. 39, 30
- B. 41, 32
- C. 42, 33 ✓ Correct
- D. 43, 34
Answer: C
Show explanation
Let X's marks equal x and Y's marks equal y. Given x = y + 9 and x = 0.56(x + y). From the second equation, x = 0.56x + 0.56y, so 0.44x = 0.56y, giving x = (14/11)y. Substituting into x = y + 9: (14/11)y = y + 9, so (3/11)y = 9, y = 33. Therefore x = 42 and y = 33. The pair is X=42 and Y=33, matching option (c). Re-examining option (a) shows 39 and 30 which doesn't satisfy the 56% rule. Correct answer is option (c) 42, 33.
- Q117
The difference of compound interest (annually) and simple interest on an amount of Rs. 15,000 for 2 years on the same rate of interest is Rs. 96. The rate of interest per annum is
- A. 8% ✓ Correct
- B. 10%
- C. 12%
- D. 7%
Answer: A
Show explanation
For two years on principal P at rate r%, the difference between compound interest (annual compounding) and simple interest equals P times (r/100) squared. Substituting P = 15000 and the difference = 96 gives 15000 * (r/100)^2 = 96, so (r/100)^2 = 96/15000 = 0.0064, giving r/100 = 0.08, so r = 8%. Therefore the rate of interest per annum is 8 percent, matching option (a).
- Q118
A father distributes Rs. 16,400 into two fixed deposits for his two sons of age 17 and 18 years respectively, such that at their age of 20 years, both get the same amount. If rate of compound interest is 5% per annum (compounded annually), then how much amount the father deposits for his younger son?
- A. Rs. 8,000 ✓ Correct
- B. Rs. 8,200
- C. Rs. 8,400
- D. Rs. 10,000
Answer: A
Show explanation
Let the amount deposited for the younger son (age 17) be y and for the elder son (age 18) be (16400 - y). At age 20, both should yield equal amounts. Younger son's term is 3 years and elder son's term is 2 years. So y*(1.05)^3 = (16400 - y)*(1.05)^2. Dividing both sides by (1.05)^2: y*1.05 = 16400 - y, so 2.05y = 16400, y = 8000. Therefore the younger son receives Rs. 8000, matching option (a).
- Q119
Refer the table and pie-graphs for Automobile Exports from India. What is the percentage change in export of automobiles excluding HCVs in 2013-14 as compared to 2010-11?
- A. 2.22% increase ✓ Correct
- B. 2.22% decrease
- C. 3.22% increase
- D. 3.22% decrease
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q120
Refer the table and pie-graphs for Automobile Exports from India. How many more two wheelers (in nearest thousands) were exported to EU in 2013-14 as compared to 2010-11?
- A. 129
- B. 131
- C. 134 ✓ Correct
- D. 176
Answer: C
Explanation coming soon.
- Q121
How many Gold Medals won by India in the 12th South Asian Games held in February 2016?
- A. 200
- B. 188 ✓ Correct
- C. 156
- D. 96
Answer: B
Show explanation
At the 12th South Asian Games held in Guwahati and Shillong in February 2016, India dominated the medal tally and won 188 gold medals overall, by far the highest among the participating nations. India's total medal count of 308 was also the highest. Therefore India's gold medal tally was 188, corresponding to option (b).
- Q122
Who among the following led the movement for withdrawing United Kingdom from the European Union?
- A. Boris Johnson ✓ Correct
- B. Mark Carney
- C. George Osborne
- D. Jean-Clande Junker
Answer: A
Show explanation
The campaign for the United Kingdom to leave the European Union, popularly known as Brexit, in the run-up to the June 2016 referendum was prominently led by figures such as Boris Johnson, then Mayor of London, alongside Michael Gove and Nigel Farage. Mark Carney was Governor of the Bank of England, George Osborne was Chancellor and broadly pro-Remain, and Jean-Claude Juncker was European Commission President. Hence Boris Johnson is the correct leader of the Leave movement, matching option (a).
- Q123
Who captained the Mumbai Cricket team, which won the Ranji Trophy Tournament 2015-16?
- A. Surya Kumar Yadav
- B. Shreyas Iyer
- C. Rohit Sharma
- D. Aditya Tare ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Mumbai won the 2015-16 Ranji Trophy, defeating Saurashtra in the final, under the captaincy of wicketkeeper-batsman Aditya Tare. It was Mumbai's 41st Ranji Trophy title. Surya Kumar Yadav and Shreyas Iyer were prominent players but not the captains, while Rohit Sharma was largely playing international cricket and not leading Mumbai's domestic side that season. Therefore option (d) Aditya Tare is correct.
- Q124
Which Indian State has been declared as the first 'Digital State' of India?
- A. Karnataka
- B. Kerala ✓ Correct
- C. Maharashtra
- D. Goa
Answer: B
Show explanation
Kerala was officially declared the first Digital State of India in February 2016, in recognition of comprehensive digital governance, fibre-optic connectivity, e-services delivery and the IT@school initiative. The declaration was made by the President of India after assessment by the central government. Karnataka, Maharashtra and Goa, while digitally advanced, were not awarded this specific designation. Hence Kerala is the correct answer.
- Q125
How much percentage of the total land mass area of India is in Rajasthan?
- A. 10.4% ✓ Correct
- B. 7.9%
- C. 13.3%
- D. 11.4%
Answer: A
Show explanation
Rajasthan, with a geographical area of 342239 square kilometres, accounts for approximately 10.4 percent of India's total land area of about 3.287 million square kilometres, making it the largest state of India by area. The other percentages listed do not correspond to Rajasthan's share of national land area. Therefore option (a) 10.4 percent is the correct figure.
- Q126
How much of Thar Desert in India falls in Rajasthan?
- A. 40%
- B. 60% ✓ Correct
- C. 80%
- D. 90%
Answer: B
Show explanation
Approximately 60 percent of the Thar Desert (Great Indian Desert) within India lies in Rajasthan, primarily covering the western districts of Jaisalmer, Barmer, Bikaner, Jodhpur and parts of Sikar, Churu, Nagaur and Pali. The remaining portions extend into Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana. Therefore the correct share of the Thar Desert in India that falls within Rajasthan is about 60 percent, matching option (b).
- Q127
Which country recently conferred its highest civilian honour 'Amir Amanullah Khan Award' to Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
- A. Saudi Arabia
- B. Uzbekistan
- C. Iran
- D. Afghanistan ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Afghanistan conferred its highest civilian honour, the Amir Amanullah Khan Award, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi in June 2016 during his visit to Herat for the inauguration of the Afghan-India Friendship Dam (Salma Dam). The award recognised his contribution to strengthening bilateral relations and supporting development cooperation. Therefore Afghanistan is the correct conferring country, matching option (d).
- Q128
Identify the place, where the first "Annapurna Bhandar" was inaugurated by the Chief Minister of Rajasthan on 31st October, 2015.
- A. Chomu
- B. Bhambori ✓ Correct
- C. Phagi
- D. Kotputali
Answer: B
Show explanation
The first Annapurna Bhandar in Rajasthan was inaugurated by Chief Minister Vasundhara Raje at Bhambori village in Jhalawar district on 31 October 2015. The Annapurna Bhandar Yojana was an arrangement to convert existing fair price shops in rural areas into multi-utility outlets selling subsidised foodgrains as well as branded grocery items at competitive prices in collaboration with Future Group. Hence Bhambori is the correct location.
- Q129 · Geography of Rajasthan
Rajasthan is the first state to implement which one of the following Act to redress public grievances?
- A. Transparency in Public Procurement Act
- B. Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act
- C. Good Governance Act
- D. Right to Hearing Act ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The correct option is the Right to Hearing Act. The Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012 gives people the right to a hearing on grievances within stipulated time limits, including information about the decision made on the complaint. The other options relate to procurement, service delivery or general governance, not this specific grievance-hearing mechanism.
- Q130
Government of Rajasthan has set-up Jeevan Dhara Bank in collaboration with Norwegian Government to provide
- A. Blood for Cancer patients
- B. Water for Desert areas
- C. Insurance to Old persons
- D. Mother's Milk to Infants ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Rajasthan Government, in collaboration with the Norwegian Government and the Norway India Partnership Initiative, set up the Jeevan Dhara human milk bank to collect, screen, pasteurise and store breast milk for infants who are unable to receive their own mother's milk, particularly orphaned, premature or sick neonates. The bank operates in association with Sir Padampat Mother and Child Health Institute, Jaipur. Hence option (d) mother's milk to infants is correct.
- Q131
What is the official 'motto' of Rio 2016 Paralympic Games?
- A. A new world ✓ Correct
- B. Come and play
- C. Equality to play
- D. Come walk together
Answer: A
Show explanation
The official motto of the Rio 2016 Paralympic Games was "A New World", reflecting the inclusive and transformative spirit of the Paralympic movement and the host city's aspirations for the games. The motto was used in the games' branding, ceremonies and communications. Therefore option (a) is the correct motto.
- Q132
The sentence incorporated in the 'Logo' of Rajasthan tourism is
- A. Rangilo Rajasthan
- B. Jane Kya Dikh Jaye ✓ Correct
- C. Rajasthan Ro Dil Dekho
- D. Darshniya Rajasthan
Answer: B
Show explanation
The official tagline incorporated in the Rajasthan Tourism logo at the time of this examination was "Jaane Kya Dikh Jaye" (loosely translated as "who knows what you might see"), used in promotional campaigns to highlight the unexpected variety of experiences across the state. "Padharo Mhare Desh" was the older traditional tagline. Therefore option (b) is correct.
- Q133
How many sports will be played during Rio Paralympic Games, 2016?
- A. 20
- B. 42
- C. 23 ✓ Correct
- D. 27
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Rio 2016 Paralympic Games featured 22 sports. The International Paralympic Committee's Rio 2016 sports page describes the programme as 22 sports being contested in Rio. The earlier statement of 23 sports is therefore incorrect; the factual figure to learn is 22 sports.
- Q134
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana? A. The scheme provides free LPG connection to the women belonging to the Below Poverty Line (BPL) households. B. Rs. 8,000 crore has been earmarked under the scheme. C. The scheme provides a financial support of Rs. 2,800 for each LPG connection to the BPL households. D. The scheme will benefit 5 crore BPL families across the nation. Which of the above statements are correct?
- A. Only A and B
- B. Only B and C
- C. Only A, C and D
- D. Only A, B and D ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, launched on 1 May 2016 from Ballia, provides free LPG connections to women of below poverty line households (statement A correct), an outlay of Rs. 8000 crore was earmarked over three years (statement B correct), and the scheme aims to benefit 5 crore BPL households over the period (statement D correct). Statement C, claiming financial support of Rs. 2800 per connection, is incorrect; the actual financial support for each LPG connection was Rs. 1600. Therefore A, B and D are correct, matching option (d).
- Q135
Who is the first Dronacharya awardee of Rajasthan State?
- A. Karan Singh ✓ Correct
- B. Ripudaman Singh
- C. Gopal Saini
- D. Paramjeet Singh
Answer: A
Explanation coming soon.
- Q136
Prestigious Asian cup 2015 Table Tennis championships was hosted at
- A. Sawai Mansingh Indoor Stadium, Jaipur ✓ Correct
- B. National Sports Club of India, Mumbai
- C. Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, New Delhi
- D. Netaji Subhash Indoor Stadium, Kolkata
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Asian Cup Table Tennis Championship 2015 was hosted at the Sawai Mansingh Indoor Stadium in Jaipur, Rajasthan, marking a major international table tennis event held in the state. The other listed venues are prominent multi-sport stadia but did not host the 2015 Asian Cup Table Tennis. Therefore option (a) is correct.
- Q137
Newly elected Chairman of Rajasthan Olympic Association is
- A. Shivcharan Mali
- B. Dhanraj Choudhary ✓ Correct
- C. Gopal Saini
- D. Ramavtar Jakhar
Answer: B
Explanation coming soon.
- Q138
How many events took place in Rio Olympic Games, 2016?
- A. 396
- B. 326
- C. 306 ✓ Correct
- D. 296
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Rio 2016 Olympic Games featured 306 medal events spread across 28 sports, including the newly added rugby sevens and golf. The total medal-event count made Rio one of the largest Olympic editions to that date. Therefore option (c) 306 events is the correct answer.
- Q139
Which is the first solar powered aircraft to circumnavigate the earth?
- A. Solar Impulse-1
- B. Solar Impulse-3
- C. Solar Impulse-2 ✓ Correct
- D. Solar Impulse-4
Answer: C
Show explanation
Solar Impulse 2, the Swiss-built single-seat experimental aircraft powered exclusively by photovoltaic cells, became the first solar-powered aircraft to circumnavigate the globe when it completed its round-the-world journey in July 2016 after a 17-leg flight that began in Abu Dhabi in March 2015. Solar Impulse 1 was an earlier prototype, while Solar Impulse 3 and 4 do not exist as completed circumnavigation aircraft. Hence option (c) is correct.
- Q140
In 35th National Games, 2015 Rajasthan won
- A. 10 Medals
- B. 1 Gold Medal only
- C. 3 Silver Medals
- D. 18 Medals ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Explanation coming soon.
- Q141
In which of the following texts the list of the sixteen great states (Sodasa Mahajanapadas) of ancient India occur? Select the correct answer from the code given below: (i) Arthashastra (ii) Anguttara Nikaya (iii) Digha Nikaya (iv) Bhagavati Sutra Codes:
- A. (i) and (ii)
- B. (ii) and (iv) ✓ Correct
- C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
- D. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: B
Show explanation
The list of the sixteen Mahajanapadas of ancient India is preserved most completely in the Buddhist Anguttara Nikaya and the Jain Bhagavati Sutra. While the Digha Nikaya mentions some janapadas, it does not provide the complete list of sixteen, and the Arthashastra of Kautilya focuses on contemporary administrative material rather than the historic Mahajanapada list. Hence options (ii) and (iv) - Anguttara Nikaya and Bhagavati Sutra - correctly identify the texts, matching option (b).
- Q142
The legend of Satyakam Jabal, which challenges the stigma of being an unmarried mother, is mentioned in
- A. Chhandogya Upanishad ✓ Correct
- B. Jabal Upanishad
- C. Kathopnishad
- D. Prashnopnishad
Answer: A
Show explanation
The legend of Satyakama Jabala, the boy who is admitted as a student by the sage Gautama after his mother Jabala honestly states that she does not know who his father is, appears in the Chhandogya Upanishad (Book IV). The story celebrates truthfulness as the highest qualification for spiritual learning and indirectly challenges social stigma. The Jabala, Katha and Prashna Upanishads contain different content. Therefore option (a) Chhandogya Upanishad is correct.
- Q143
Which of the following Sanskrit works has taken up their theme from the Mahabharata? Select the correct answer from the code given below: (i) Naishdhiyacharita (ii) Kiratarjuniyam (iii) Sisupalavadha (iv) Dasakumaracharita Codes:
- A. (i) and (iii)
- B. (ii) and (iii)
- C. (i), (ii) and (iii) ✓ Correct
- D. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: C
Show explanation
Among the listed Sanskrit works, Sriharsha's Naishadhiyacharita is based on the Nala-Damayanti story associated with the Mahabharata tradition. Bharavi's Kiratarjuniyam draws on Arjuna's encounter with Shiva in the guise of a Kirata, and Magha's Sisupalavadha uses the Sabha Parva episode of Krishna slaying Shishupala. Dandin's Dasakumaracharita is independent prose fiction. Therefore statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are connected with Mahabharata themes, so option (c) is correct.
- Q144
Which one of the following Sun Temples is located in Patan, Gujarat?
- A. Konark
- B. Modhera ✓ Correct
- C. Martand
- D. Dakshinark
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Modhera Sun Temple, dedicated to Surya, is located at Modhera village in Mehsana district of Gujarat, and was built by King Bhima I of the Chalukya (Solanki) dynasty around 1026 CE. The Konark temple is in Odisha, the Martand temple in Jammu and Kashmir, and the Dakshinark temple at Gaya in Bihar. Therefore option (b) Modhera is the correct answer for the Sun temple in Gujarat.
- Q145
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
- A. Raziya Sultan - Delhi
- B. Bahadur Shah - Gujarat
- C. Baz Bahadur - Malwa
- D. Chand Bibi - Awadh ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Razia Sultan ruled Delhi as Sultan from 1236 to 1240 CE, Bahadur Shah ruled Gujarat in the 16th century, and Baz Bahadur ruled Malwa with his consort Roopmati. Chand Bibi, however, is associated with the kingdoms of Ahmednagar and Bijapur, where she defended Ahmednagar against Mughal forces; she has no historical connection with Awadh. Therefore the incorrectly matched pair is Chand Bibi with Awadh, corresponding to option (d).
- Q146
Who among the following laid the foundation of the Chola Empire in the IXth century A.D.?
- A. Vijayalaya ✓ Correct
- B. Krishna I
- C. Parantak
- D. Rajraja Chola
Answer: A
Show explanation
Vijayalaya Chola, who recaptured Tanjore from the Muttaraiyars around 850 CE, founded the Imperial Chola dynasty in the ninth century CE and made Tanjore his capital. His successors Aditya I, Parantaka I and later Rajaraja I and Rajendra I expanded the empire significantly, but the foundation belongs to Vijayalaya. Krishna I was a Rashtrakuta ruler. Therefore option (a) Vijayalaya is the correct answer.
- Q147
The Persian translation of Mahabharata, which was done in 16th century is called
- A. Hamzanama
- B. Alamgirnama
- C. Badshahnama
- D. Razmanama ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Razmnama (Persian for "Book of War") is the Persian translation of the Mahabharata commissioned by Mughal emperor Akbar in 1582 and completed by a team of scholars and translators including Naqib Khan, Mulla Sheri, Faizi and Abdul Qadir Badauni at the Maktabkhana of Fatehpur Sikri. It exemplifies Akbar's effort to bridge Hindu and Muslim literary traditions. Hamzanama, Alamgirnama and Badshahnama are different Persian works. Hence option (d) Razmnama is correct.
- Q148
Who among the following does not belong to the Chishti order?
- A. Sheikh Moinuddin
- B. Khwaja Qutuddin Bakhtiar Kaki
- C. Sheikh Nizamuddin Aulia
- D. Sheikh Abdul Jilani ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Sheikh Moinuddin Chishti, Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki and Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya are central figures of the Chishti silsila in India, beginning from Ajmer and extending through Delhi. Sheikh Abdul Qadir Jilani, however, is the founder of the Qadiri silsila in Baghdad and does not belong to the Chishti order. Therefore option (d) Sheikh Abdul Jilani is the figure who does not belong to the Chishti tradition.
- Q149
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
- A. Ring Fence Policy - Warren Hastings
- B. Suppression of Thuggee - William Bentinck
- C. Vernacular Press Act - Curzon ✓ Correct
- D. Illbert Bill - Ripon
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Ring Fence Policy was indeed framed by Warren Hastings to safeguard the Company's frontiers, and the suppression of Thuggee was carried out under William Bentinck through Colonel William Sleeman, while the Ilbert Bill controversy occurred during Lord Ripon's viceroyalty. The Vernacular Press Act, however, was promulgated in 1878 by Lord Lytton, not Lord Curzon. Therefore the incorrect pair is Vernacular Press Act with Curzon, matching option (c).
- Q150
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Socio-religious movements of the 19th century resulted in the modernization of India. Reason (R): Rationalism, scientific temper and other such ideas which are the basis of modernization were at the core of the socio-religious movements. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Codes:
- A. (A) is true but (R) is false.
- B. (R) is true but (A) is false.
- C. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- D. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Nineteenth-century socio-religious reform movements such as the Brahmo Samaj, Arya Samaj, Aligarh Movement and Prarthana Samaj propagated rationalism, scientific temper, social equality and questioning of orthodox practices, all of which constitute foundational elements of modernity. These ideas drove modernisation of education, gender relations and social institutions. Therefore both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, matching option (d).
