RAS 2013 Prelims — Previous Year Questions with Answers

Maharana Kumbha of Mewar (1433-1468) was a learned ruler and patron of music and literature. In the Rajasthan-history exam context, Rasikpriya, Sudha Prabandh and Nrityaratnakosh are treated as works connected with Kumbha's literary-musical corpus. Kalanidhi does not belong to this keyed set of works attributed to Kumbha. Therefore, the text not written by Kumbha is Kalanidhi, option D.

Jamnadas, Chhotelal, Baksaram and Nandalal are associated with the Alwar style of painting, so option A is correct. The Government Museum, Alwar catalogue records older Alwar painter-name variants such as Bakasrama, Jamunadasa, Nandarama and Chhotelal, which correspond to the spellings used in this PYQ tradition. Bikaner is a separate Rajasthani school with a different court atelier and is therefore not the answer here. Marwar and Jhalawar also developed distinct styles but do not match this named group.

The Varik dynasty ruled over Bayana in eastern Rajasthan during the early medieval period. Bayana, in present-day Bharatpur district, was an important political and strategic centre on the route to Malwa. The Varik chiefs are documented from inscriptional evidence in this region prior to its capture by various successors. Badnaur was associated with the Chauhans, Osian with the Pratiharas, and Alwar with the Naruka and earlier dynasties. Therefore, the correct match for the Varik rulers is Bayana.

Goga Navami, the festival commemorating folk hero Goga (Gogaji) of Rajasthan, is observed on the ninth day (navami) of the Krishna Paksh (dark fortnight) of Bhadrapada (Bhadon), the sixth month of the Hindu calendar. Goga Maharaj is venerated as the deity who protects against snakebites and is worshipped widely across western Rajasthan, Haryana and adjoining regions. The major fair at Gogamedi in Hanumangarh district is held during this period. The other options misplace either the fortnight or the month and are therefore incorrect.

The Tejaji Fair, dedicated to the folk hero and cattle-protector Veer Tejaji, is organised annually at Parbatsar in Nagaur district of Rajasthan. The fair is one of the largest cattle fairs in the state and is held in the month of Bhadrapada around Tejaji's martyrdom anniversary. While Tejaji is also venerated at Kharnal (his birthplace) and Sursura (his place of death) in different fairs, the principal Tejaji cattle fair is associated with Parbatsar. Merata, Goth Manglod and Nagaur host other fairs of regional importance.

The official RPSC key for this PYQ marks option D as correct, so the answer is Kesari Singh. Veer Bharat Society or Veer Bharat Sabha is associated in this question with revolutionary nationalist activity in Kota and Rajasthan, and the other listed names do not match the keyed answer. Pyare Ram, Sadhu Sita Ram and Nayanu Ram belong to other strands of Rajasthan's political and social awakening, but they are not the correct option here.

In Rajasthani folk culture, Kshetrapal (literally 'guardian of the field or territory') is venerated as a village deity who protects the boundaries, fields and inhabitants of the settlement. Shrines to Kshetrapal are commonly found at the outskirts of villages and at threshold sites. The figure is rooted in Tantric and Shaiva traditions and integrates with local agrarian worship. He is not a village officer, devotee or saint but a protective folk deity worshipped through stones, terracotta plaques and small shrines across rural Rajasthan.

The Ajivakas, founded by Makkhali Gosala, a contemporary of the Buddha and Mahavira, believed in the doctrine of Niyati or strict determinism. They held that all events in life are pre-ordained and that human effort cannot alter destiny. Charvakas were materialists denying afterlife and karma. Buddhism emphasises the law of dependent origination and rejects fatalism, while Jainism strongly affirms karma and individual effort towards liberation. Hence, the sect that believed in the abiding nature of destiny is the Ajivakas.

The official RPSC key for this matching item gives result 4. In the stored option set, option D corresponds to A-iii, B-iv, C-ii and D-i: lotus-bud fringe is paired with the Khaljis, emergence of the octagonal tomb with the Tughluqs, Bodegoi in the pillar with Vijayanagar, and massive inclined-wall gateways with the Sharqi tradition. Hence option D is correct.

All four statements about V.D. Savarkar are correct. He founded Abhinav Bharat in 1904 as a revolutionary secret society modelled on Mazzini's Young Italy. He authored a Marathi biography of Mazzini to inspire Indian nationalists. He wrote 'The Indian War of Independence 1857', presenting the revolt as a planned national uprising; the book was banned by the British. While being transported on the SS Morea in 1910, he famously jumped into the sea at Marseilles attempting to escape British custody. Hence all four statements are factually accurate.

Among the matches concerning the origin of Harappan civilization, M. Rafique Mughal is associated with the discovery and study of the Hakra and Cholistan sites, demonstrating the indigenous Early Harappan roots of the civilization, not a Mesopotamian inspiration. E.J.H. Mackay did argue for migration from Sumer; Mortimer Wheeler proposed diffusion of the idea of civilization from West Asia; Amalananda Ghosh emphasised continuity from pre-Harappan Sothi cultures. Therefore, the incorrect pairing is Mughal with Mesopotamian inspiration, making option d the answer.

'Pankodakasannirodhe' was a fine mentioned in Kautilya's Arthashastra, imposed on those who obstructed roads by throwing mud and dirty water on public paths in the Mauryan empire.

Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission on 1 May 1897 at Belur, near Calcutta, after returning to India from his lectures in the West following the Parliament of Religions at Chicago in 1893. The mission was conceived to combine spiritual ideals of Sri Ramakrishna with humanitarian service. Although Vivekananda took monastic vows in 1886, the formal founding of the Ramakrishna Mission as an organised body for service and propagation of Vedanta took place in 1897. Hence the correct year is 1897, option c.

In Mauryan administration, Yuktas were subordinate revenue officials, Pradeshikas were district-level officers responsible for general administration and revenue collection, and Rajukas were officials charged with revenue assessment, judicial duties and surveying lands, particularly mentioned in Ashoka's edicts. Agraharika, however, was not a Mauryan administrative office; the term relates to land grants (agrahara) given to Brahmanas, a practice that became prominent during the Gupta and post-Gupta periods. Hence Agraharika is the official not part of Mauryan administration.

The chronological order is: Jallianwala Bagh tragedy occurred on 13 April 1919; the Swarajist Party was formed on 1 January 1923 by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru after the suspension of Non-Cooperation; the Naujawan Bharat Sabha was founded by Bhagat Singh and others at Lahore in 1926; and the Dandi March was undertaken by Gandhi from 12 March to 6 April 1930. Therefore the correct sequence is (iv), (ii), (i), (iii), corresponding to option c.

The Lorraine region in north-eastern France is renowned for its iron and steel industry, historically based on locally-mined iron ore (minette ore) from the Lorraine basin and adjacent coal supplies from the Saar and the Nord-Pas-de-Calais. The region became one of Europe's leading iron and steel producing zones, with major centres around Metz and Nancy. Although industry has declined in recent decades, Lorraine's historical and continuing identity is firmly tied to ferrous metallurgy rather than cotton textiles, paper or chemicals.

The Koyali refinery in Vadodara, Gujarat was set up by the Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), not by HPCL. It is one of the oldest and largest refineries in India, commissioned in 1965 under the public-sector IOCL. Tatipaka in Andhra Pradesh is operated by ONGC, Digboi in Assam by IOCL, and Bina in Madhya Pradesh by Bharat Oman Refineries (a BPCL joint venture). Therefore, the incorrectly matched pair is Koyali with HPCL, making option c the answer.

Under the National Highway Development Project, the North-South Corridor from Srinagar to Kanyakumari and the East-West Corridor from Silchar to Porbandar intersect at Jhansi in Uttar Pradesh. Delhi is on the Golden Quadrilateral; Nagpur and Hyderabad are on the North-South corridor, but none of the three is the North-South/East-West meeting point. Hence the answer is Jhansi.

The Strait of Gibraltar separates Africa (Morocco) from Europe (Spain). The Strait of Malacca lies between Indonesia (Sumatra) and Malaysia. The Bering Strait separates Asia (Russia) from North America (Alaska). The Strait of Hormuz lies between the Gulf of Persia and the Gulf of Oman, connecting the two and serving as a critical oil shipping chokepoint. Therefore the correct matches are A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii, corresponding to option b.

Highland areas of equatorial regions, with their cooler climate, sufficient rainfall and well-drained slopes, are particularly suitable for plantation agriculture. Crops such as tea, coffee, cocoa and rubber thrive on these elevated terrains, forming the basis of large estate-style commercial cultivation in countries like Brazil, Kenya, Sri Lanka and parts of Southeast Asia. Humid agriculture and dry agriculture refer to climatic suitability not specifically to highland tropics; commercial agriculture is broader. The most precise classification for highland equatorial agriculture is plantation agriculture.

The assertion that Himalayan rivers are perennial is correct, since they receive water both from monsoon rainfall and from year-round melting of snow and glaciers in their catchment. The reason that the source of Himalayan rivers is located in glaciers is also correct, as the Ganga rises from Gangotri, the Yamuna from Yamunotri, the Indus and Brahmaputra from glacial sources in the Tibetan Himalaya. The reason therefore correctly explains why these rivers are perennial. Hence both A and R are true and R supports A.

Among the major physiographic regions of India, the Deccan Plateau covers the largest area, extending across most of peninsular India south of the Vindhya-Satpura ranges and bounded by the Western and Eastern Ghats. Estimates place its area at over 16 lakh square kilometres, larger than the Northern Plains, Northern Mountains or the Coastal Plains. The Northern Plains, while densely populated and economically vital, span a smaller area. Therefore, the physiographic region with maximum areal extent in India is the Deccan Plateau.

The official RPSC answer key for this PYQ marks question 30 as option A / 1. Therefore the accepted answer is Balara, as carried by option A in the paper. The previous explanation is not usable because it names Dajia and reverses the official option logic.

Rajasthan's coal reserves are predominantly of the lignite variety, found mainly in the Barmer-Sanchore basin (Kapurdi, Jalipa, Giral) and at Palana in Bikaner district. Lignite is a low-grade brown coal with high moisture content, used principally in mine-mouth thermal power stations such as Giral and Barsingsar. Higher-rank coals such as bituminous and anthracite are not found in Rajasthan, and peat is also not a major resource. Hence the major coal type found in Rajasthan is lignite.

The Got-Manglod area in Nagaur district is well-known in Rajasthan for extensive deposits and production of gypsum. Nagaur, along with Bikaner and Jaisalmer, accounts for the bulk of India's gypsum output, with Got-Manglod being a notable mining location used by industries producing plaster of Paris, cement and fertilisers. Rock phosphate is associated with Jhamarkotra (Udaipur), tungsten with Degana (Nagaur, but a different mineral and locality), and manganese with the Banswara-Pratapgarh tract. Hence Got-Manglod corresponds to gypsum.

Mawat is the local term in Rajasthan for the light winter rainfall that occurs in the north-western and central parts of the state. It is caused by western disturbances, which are extra-tropical cyclonic systems originating over the Mediterranean and Caspian regions and travelling eastwards across northern India during the winter months. These disturbances bring brief but agriculturally significant rainfall, especially helpful for the rabi wheat and mustard crops. The south-west, north-east and south-east monsoons are not responsible for the winter Mawat rainfall.

Kesardesar is a coal/lignite mining locality in Bikaner district, Kapurdi is a major lignite mine in Barmer district, Matasukh is a lignite area in Nagaur district, and Tanot is associated with natural gas exploration in Jaisalmer district. Therefore, A-Bikaner (iii), B-Barmer (iv), C-Nagaur (ii), D-Jaisalmer (i), which corresponds to option a. The Tanot gas field gained prominence as part of the Jaisalmer basin hydrocarbon exploration. Lignite at Matasukh and Kapurdi feeds power generation in Rajasthan.

Among the listed locations, Morija, Dabla and Neemla are iron-ore localities in Rajasthan. The Department of Mines and Geology lists Morija-Neemala and Dabla among important iron-ore areas, while Banswara is noted mainly for manganese in this context. Therefore Talwada is the location that is not an iron-ore mining area among the given options, so the correct answer is option D.

The Jawai Dam project, built across the Jawai river, a tributary of the Luni, primarily benefits Pali, Sirohi and parts of Jodhpur districts and was inaugurated in 1957. Udaipur and Rajsamand districts, lying upstream in the southern Aravalli region, derive partial benefit through associated watershed and feeder works. Barmer district lies further west in the arid zone and does not receive irrigation or water supply benefits from the Jawai project. Hence the district not benefitting from Jawai is Barmer.

The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 substituted the words 'shall give his assent' for 'may give his assent' in Article 368, thereby removing the President's discretion to veto a constitutional amendment Bill. The amendment was a direct response to the Supreme Court's Golak Nath judgment and made it obligatory for the President to assent to any constitutional amendment Bill passed by Parliament. The 23rd, 42nd and 44th amendments dealt with different matters such as reservation extensions and emergency provisions, and did not effect this specific change.

The Fundamental Duties were inserted in the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 as Article 51A in Part IVA. The duty to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is listed as the third Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(c). The first duty is to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions; the second is to cherish and follow the noble ideals of the freedom struggle; the fourth is to defend the country and render national service when called upon. Hence the duty asked for is at number three.

Part IX of the Constitution of India, comprising Articles 243 to 243-O, deals with the Panchayats. It was inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which gave constitutional status to rural local self-government and provided for a three-tier Panchayati Raj system. Part IXA covers Municipalities (urban local bodies) and was inserted by the 74th Amendment. Part IXB, inserted by the 97th Amendment, deals with co-operative societies. Part VIII covers Union Territories. Therefore, Panchayats are dealt with in Part IX, option b.

Statement I is incorrect because the 42nd Amendment of 1976 (not the 44th of 1978) attempted to give all Directive Principles primacy over Articles 14 and 19 by amending Article 31C. Statement II is correct: in Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court struck down the unlimited primacy and held that only laws giving effect to the Directive Principles in Article 39(b) and (c) can be saved from challenge under Articles 14 and 19. Hence only II is correct, making option b the answer.

The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2012 inserted the right to form co-operative societies as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(c) and added Part IXB. The 81st Amendment, 2000 enabled the carrying forward of unfilled SC/ST reservation backlog vacancies. The 99th Amendment, 2014 (with effect 2015) provided for the National Judicial Appointments Commission, later struck down. The 91st Amendment, 2003 limited the size of the Council of Ministers to 15 percent of the lower House. Hence A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii, matching option b.

Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the U.S. Bill of Rights. Directive Principles of State Policy are borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937. The Cabinet form of government, with collective responsibility to the lower House, is drawn from the British Constitution. The scheme of Union-State (federal) relations and the division of powers were inspired largely by the Canadian Constitution. Hence A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii, corresponding to option c.

Both the assertion and the reason are individually correct. The framers of the Indian Constitution adopted a federal design with a strong unitary bias precisely to weave together a culturally and linguistically diverse country and to safeguard national integration after partition. Indian federal practice, through accommodation of regional languages, asymmetric arrangements like Article 371 series and creation of new states, has demonstrated that recognising diversity strengthens rather than weakens national unity. The reason therefore correctly explains the assertion, making option a the answer.

A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950) dealt with the procedure for preventive detention and the scope of Article 21. Romesh Thapar v. State of Madras (1950) concerned restrictions on freedom of speech and expression. Sankari Prasad v. Union of India (1951) addressed Parliament's power to amend the Constitution including Fundamental Rights. State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951) struck down communal reservation in admissions, leading to the First Amendment. Hence A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i, corresponding to option a.

The Government of India Act was enacted in 1935 and provided for provincial autonomy and a federal structure. The Cripps Mission's proposals were placed before Indian leaders in 1942 with offers of post-war Dominion status. The August Offer was made by Viceroy Linlithgow in August 1940 promising a constituent body after the war. The Wavell Plan was unveiled in 1945 leading to the Simla Conference. Hence A-i (1935), B-iv (1942), C-ii (1940), D-iii (1945), corresponding to option b.

Mizoram was granted full statehood by the 53rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1986, which inserted Article 371G providing special provisions relating to Mizoram and the protection of Mizo religious, social practices, customary law and land ownership. Mizoram became the twenty-third state of the Indian Union on 20 February 1987, alongside Arunachal Pradesh which was granted statehood by the 55th Amendment. The 52nd Amendment dealt with anti-defection. Hence Mizoram's statehood corresponds to the 53rd Constitutional Amendment, option d.

Both statements are true and the reason correctly explains the assertion. The Sarkaria Commission, set up in 1983 and reporting in 1988, examined Centre-State relations and recommended that Article 356 (President's Rule) be used very sparingly, only as a last resort, after all other alternatives have failed. The reason given that political parties at the Centre had repeatedly misused Article 356 to dismiss state governments of opposing parties is precisely what motivated the Commission's recommendation. Hence both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

UIDAI's official past-officers list places Shri Nandan Nilekani under Chairman with joining date 23 July 2009, and Shri R S Sharma under Director General and Mission Director with joining date 31 July 2009. Therefore the first Director General of UIDAI was Ram Sewak Sharma, not Nandan Nilekani. Among the given options, option C is correct; Nilekani was the Chairman, while Sharma held the Director General and Mission Director role.

In the first Rajasthan State Assembly elections (1952), the Ram Rajya Parishad secured the second-highest number of seats after the Indian National Congress. This party had significant support among the former princely states' population and traditionalist voters in Rajasthan.

The office of Divisional Commissioner in Rajasthan was abolished under the Rajasthan Divisional Commissioner (Office Abolition) Act, 1962. Later amendments to the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act restored references to a Commissioner with effect from 31 January 1987. Hence the correct combination is abolition in 1962 and revival in 1987, corresponding to option d.

President's Rule under Article 356 has been imposed in Rajasthan four times since the formation of the state. The instances were in 1967, 1977, 1980 and 1992 (following the demolition of the Babri Masjid when the BJP-led state government was dismissed alongside others). Each occasion arose from political instability or specific national developments. Other states such as Punjab and Manipur have seen far more frequent invocations, but in Rajasthan the figure stands at four. Hence the correct answer is 4, option b.

Rajasthan has consistently been important in the production of rapeseed and mustard, with major rabi cultivation in districts such as Alwar, Bharatpur, Sri Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and Jaipur. Rajasthan is also important in bajra and pulses, but the official key for this question identifies rapeseed and mustard as the first-ranked crop category. Hence option d is the correct answer.

The official RPSC answer key for this PYQ marks question 66 as option A / 1. Therefore the accepted answer is Suratgarh Thermal Power Project, as carried by option A in the paper. The previous explanation is not reliable because it identifies Kalisindh as the answer even though the official key does not support option C.

For the historical 2015 national-accounts revision, the base year changed from 2004-05 to 2011-12, and valuation moved from the earlier emphasis on GDP at factor cost toward GVA at basic prices and GDP at market prices. The revision also used MCA-21 corporate filings and broader sectoral coverage, so option d was correct in that PYQ context. Currentness note: in February 2026, MoSPI released a newer national-accounts series with base year 2022-23, replacing the 2011-12 series.

The Direct Cash Transfer Scheme for kerosene subsidy was first piloted in Rajasthan at Kotkasim Tehsil of Alwar district from December 2011, before being scaled up to other regions. Under the pilot, beneficiaries purchased kerosene at the market price and the subsidy amount was credited directly to their bank accounts, aiming to reduce diversion and improve targeting. The pilot informed national rollout of direct benefit transfer for fuel subsidies. The other tehsils named in the options were not the launch locations.

Frequency Modulation broadcast service in India and globally operates in the Very High Frequency band, specifically between 88 MHz and 108 MHz. This range is internationally allocated for FM radio under the ITU regulations and provides higher fidelity audio than the AM medium-wave band, with channel spacing of typically 200 kHz. Frequencies outside this band, such as 54-75 MHz or 109-139 MHz, are used for television, aviation and other services. Hence FM broadcasting uses the 88-108 MHz range, option c.

Hydrogen sulphide is an inorganic gaseous pollutant of the air, produced from natural sources such as volcanoes and from industrial processes including petroleum refining, sewage treatment and pulp-and-paper manufacture. Hydrogen cyanide should not be dismissed as organic merely because it contains carbon, while methane and phosgene are carbon-containing distractors. Among the options, hydrogen sulphide is the standard inorganic gaseous pollutant answer. It has a characteristic rotten-egg odour and is toxic at low concentrations. Hence the answer is hydrogen sulphide.

India has four recognised biodiversity hotspots: the Himalaya, Indo-Burma, Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, and Sundaland. Among the given options, only the Western Ghats is one of these recognised hotspots; Sunderbans, Eastern Ghats and the Gangetic Plains are not the correct answer here. Hence option B is correct.

The correctly matched pair is Ligases - Molecular Stitchers. In recombinant DNA work, restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific sites, while DNA ligase joins the cut DNA ends or fragments. DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA; it is not the molecular scissors. Therefore option B is correct.

Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is a non-narcotic analgesic and antipyretic; it is not classified as a narcotic analgesic. Narcotic analgesics include opioids such as morphine and codeine that act on central opioid receptors. Aspirin relieves mild to moderate pain, reduces fever, has anti-inflammatory action and inhibits platelet aggregation, giving it antiblood-clotting properties used for cardiovascular protection. While it has systemic effects on the nervous system through prostaglandin inhibition, calling it narcotic is incorrect. Hence the statement that aspirin belongs to narcotic analgesics is not true.

Among the listed ISRO launches, GSAT-4 (15 April 2010) and GSAT-5P (25 December 2010) failed to reach orbit. GSAT-4 was lost when the GSLV-D3 mission failed during the cryogenic upper-stage flight. GSAT-5P was lost when the GSLV-F06 vehicle veered off course shortly after lift-off and was destroyed by range safety. GSAT-2 (8 May 2003) and GSAT-12 (15 July 2011) reached their intended orbits successfully. Hence the two failed satellites correspond to (B) and (C), option b.

The C-130J Super Hercules is a four-engine turboprop military transport aircraft manufactured by Lockheed Martin in the United States of America. The Indian Air Force inducted six C-130J-30s under a 2008 deal with the United States, operated primarily by Special Operations squadrons for paradrops and special missions. The aircraft is renowned for short-field performance and global service in many air forces. It is not produced by Russia, France or Israel, and the answer is therefore the U.S.A., option a.

When there is no time to verify the recipient's blood group, the universal donor blood is O-negative (O, Rh-). It lacks A, B and Rh antigens on the red cell surface and therefore can be transfused into recipients of any ABO and Rh combination without provoking a major haemolytic reaction. O Rh-positive can be given to Rh-positive recipients but risks reactions in Rh-negative recipients. AB Rh-negative and AB Rh-positive are universal recipient blood types, not donor types. Hence the correct emergency choice is O, Rh-negative.

Hepatitis-B is transmitted primarily through blood, blood products, sexual contact and from mother to child during birth, not through contaminated water. Hepatitis A and E are the water-borne hepatitis viruses. Jaundice as a symptom can result from various causes including water-borne viruses such as hepatitis A. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae and typhoid by Salmonella typhi, both transmitted through faecally contaminated water and food. Hence the disease not due to water contamination is Hepatitis-B, option a.

Golden Rice is genetically modified to produce beta-carotene (provitamin A) in the rice grain, aimed at addressing vitamin A deficiency in developing countries.

The Amazon rainforest, spanning Brazil, Peru, Colombia and other South American countries, is popularly described as the lungs of the planet because it produces a substantial share of the world's terrestrial photosynthetic oxygen and absorbs large quantities of atmospheric carbon dioxide. With an area of about 5.5 million square kilometres, it is the largest tropical rainforest on earth. Taiga, tundra and the rainforests of north-east India, while ecologically valuable, are not described in this manner in standard literature. Hence the answer is the Amazon rainforest.

A battery is the device that converts chemical energy stored in its electrolytes and electrodes into electrical energy through redox reactions, supplying direct current to an external circuit. A motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy; a generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy by electromagnetic induction; a moving-coil meter converts electrical signals into mechanical deflection of a pointer to indicate measurement. Therefore, the correct answer for the device that transforms chemical energy directly into electrical energy is the battery, option d.

An ecosystem comprises biotic and abiotic components. Biotic components are living organisms, including producers (plants), consumers (animals) and decomposers (bacteria and fungi). Abiotic components are the non-living physical and chemical factors such as air, water, sunlight, temperature, soil and minerals. Among the options, plants, bacteria and animals are biotic components, while air is an abiotic component since it consists of non-living gases. Hence the component that is not biotic is air, corresponding to option d.

For this older exam convention, option d is the closest answer because UTF-16 uses 16-bit code units and early Unicode was often described through a 16-bit framing. In current use, however, Unicode is not simply a 16-bit encoding: it can be represented through UTF-8, UTF-16 or UTF-32, and UTF-16 may use one 16-bit code unit or a surrogate pair. Thus option d remains correct only in the older UTF-16/code-unit sense.

The retina of the vertebrate eye develops as an outgrowth of the diencephalon, a part of the embryonic forebrain. During embryonic development, paired optic vesicles evaginate from the lateral walls of the diencephalon and invaginate to form the optic cups, whose inner layer becomes the neural retina and outer layer the pigmented retinal epithelium. Hence the retina is anatomically and embryologically a derivative of the diencephalon, not the mesencephalon, telencephalon or pons varolii. Therefore option b is correct.

E. coli restriction endonuclease II (EcoRII and similar enzymes) cleaves DNA at specific recognition sequences, the defining function of restriction endonucleases. Acrosin is a serine protease in sperm acrosomes that aids penetration of the egg coat, not a cortical-granule enzyme; the cortical-granule reaction in the ovum involves zona-modifying enzymes. Succinic dehydrogenase is a mitochondrial enzyme of the citric acid cycle, not a lysosomal marker. Acid phosphatase is a lysosomal marker, not a mitochondrial one. Hence only option a is correctly matched.

Tomatoes (Solanum lycopersicum) are a rich dietary source of citric acid, which is the predominant organic acid contributing to their characteristic tart flavour. Citric acid in tomatoes is accompanied by smaller amounts of malic acid and traces of others. Methonic acid is not a recognised dietary term; oxalic acid is associated with spinach and some leafy greens; acetic acid is the principal acid of vinegar and not naturally abundant in tomatoes. Therefore for human nutrition, tomatoes are a rich source of citric acid, option b.

The kiwi is a flightless bird of the genus Apteryx, endemic to New Zealand. There are several species including the brown kiwi, little spotted kiwi and great spotted kiwi. They are nocturnal, possess hair-like feathers, vestigial wings and a long sensitive bill with nostrils at the tip used to forage for invertebrates. The kiwi is the national symbol of New Zealand. It is not a desert snake, a chiropteran (bat) of Australia, or a vulture of the Amazon. Hence option a is correct.

Eutrophication of a water body results from excessive enrichment of nutrients, particularly nitrogenous compounds and orthophosphates, derived from agricultural runoff, sewage and industrial effluents. The high nutrient load triggers algal blooms, which on decomposition consume dissolved oxygen and lead to depletion of oxygen and death of aquatic life. While oxygen depletion, algal blooms and idol immersion are consequences or contributing factors, the underlying cause specifically referenced in standard textbooks is the high amounts of nitrogenous nutrients and orthophosphates, hence option c.

Biofuels are derived from oils and fermentable sugars or starches: jatropha, sugarcane, palm, soyabean, corn, rapeseed and mustard are all suitable feedstocks for biodiesel or bioethanol production. Lentil (a pulse legume) is grown primarily for human consumption and protein supply; while sugarbeet and wheat can in principle be used for ethanol, lentil is not a recognised biofuel feedstock. Hence the group containing a crop that cannot be used for biofuel production is the group with lentil, sugarbeet and wheat, corresponding to option b.

Phreatophytes are deep-rooted plants that obtain water from the permanent water table by sending long taproots downwards. In deserts, classic examples such as mesquite (Prosopis) and acacia have taproots extending several metres, often 20 to 30 feet or more, to reach groundwater. They differ from xerophytes such as cacti, which store water in succulent stems, and from sclerophyllous plants, which have small spine-like leaves to reduce transpiration. Hence the defining feature of phreatophytes is long taproots, option b.

If Shalini ranks seventh from the top and twenty-seventh from the bottom, the total number of students equals the sum of her two ranks minus one (since she is counted once in each rank). Total = 7 + 27 - 1 = 33. Hence there are 33 students in the class, corresponding to option a. This is a standard rank-counting formula used in reasoning problems where one position is included in both directions and must be subtracted once to avoid double counting.

Adding the two given inequalities Q + R > P + S and P + Q > R + S yields P + 2Q + R > P + R + 2S, which simplifies to 2Q > 2S, hence Q > S. The other relationships among P, R and S cannot be deduced definitely from the given information alone, since the inequalities only constrain certain sums. Therefore the only relation that is definitely true is Q greater than S, corresponding to option a.

Statement (a) says only the best candidates can clear the exam, meaning a necessary condition for clearing is being among the best. From this it follows logically that anyone who has cleared must belong to the set of best candidates. Statements (b) and (c) about good marks and awards are subsidiary. Option (a) is unsupported as we are not told all best candidates appear; (c) and (d) extend beyond what is given. Therefore the inference that all who clear the exam are best candidates is valid, option b.

Last year Ena's age was a square and next year it will be a cube. The smallest pair satisfying this is square 25 (last year) and cube 27 (next year), so Ena is currently 26 years old. The next cube after 27 is 64. Therefore she must wait 64 - 27 = 37 years from next year onward, or 38 years from her current age, until her age becomes a cube again. Hence the answer is 38 years, option c.

If n^2 + 48 = m^2 for integers m and n, then m^2 - n^2 = 48, so (m - n)(m + n) = 48. Both factors must have the same parity, so the valid positive even factor pairs are (2, 24), (4, 12) and (6, 8). These give n = 11, 4 and 1; their corresponding negative values are n = -11, -4 and -1. Thus there are 6 integer values of n. Hence the answer is 6, option b.

Let a+b+c=M because the arithmetic mean of a, b and c is M/3. From 1/a + 1/b = -1/c, we get (a+b)/ab = -1/c, so c(a+b) = -ab and therefore ab+bc+ca=0. Using (a+b+c)^2 = a^2+b^2+c^2+2(ab+bc+ca), we get M^2 = a^2+b^2+c^2. Hence the arithmetic mean of a^2, b^2 and c^2 is M^2/3, so option A is correct.

From 'goolo yarn' = 'blue sky' and 'goolo silko' = 'blue bicycle', the common word goolo means 'blue', so silko means 'bicycle' and yarn means 'sky'. From 'silko spadi' = 'bicycle race', spadi must mean 'race'. To express 'race car', we need spadi (race) and a new word for 'car'. Among the options, 'spadi volo' contains spadi (race) plus a new word volo that could mean 'car'. Hence the phrase that may mean 'race car' is 'spadi volo', option d.

For expressions of the form sqrt(n+8) - sqrt(n) we can write the difference as 8 / (sqrt(n+8) + sqrt(n)). The denominator increases as n increases, so the value of the difference decreases as n increases. Among the four expressions, the smallest n is 29 (giving sqrt(37) - sqrt(29)), so this difference is the largest. Successively larger n in the other expressions yields smaller differences. Hence the greatest among the four is sqrt(37) - sqrt(29), corresponding to option a.

Both proposed courses of action address the underlying problem of graduate employability. Course of Action I, granting universities more freedom to redesign syllabi, can directly improve curriculum relevance to industry needs. Course of Action II, encouraging top-ranked foreign universities to open campuses in India, can raise quality benchmarks and broaden choice. Both are constructive and complementary responses to the stated problem. Hence both courses of action follow logically from the statement, corresponding to option d.

For a regular polygon, the sum of an internal and external angle at each vertex is 180 degrees. If the ratio of external to internal angle is 1 : 5, then the external angle is 180 x 1/6 = 30 degrees. The number of sides equals 360 divided by the external angle, so n = 360 / 30 = 12. Therefore the polygon has 12 sides, corresponding to option d. This is a standard application of the exterior-angle property of regular polygons.

The given expenditures total 20 + 15 + 18 + 20 + 12 = 85 percent, leaving savings F = 15 percent of monthly income. If 15 percent of the income equals Rs 4,500, then the income is 4,500 / 0.15 = Rs 30,000. Therefore the monthly income of the family is Rs 30,000, corresponding to option b. This is a direct application of percentage-to-whole conversion in pie chart-based budgeting questions, where the residual category determines income from the known savings figure.

Justice Surendra Kumar Sinha was sworn in as the 21st Chief Justice of Bangladesh on 17 January 2015, becoming the first Hindu (and first non-Muslim) to hold that office. His appointment was a notable development given Bangladesh's predominantly Muslim demographic and was widely covered in international and South Asian media. The other options refer to events not associated with him. Hence the correct answer is that he became the first Hindu Chief Justice of the Bangladesh Supreme Court, option c.

Boxer Manoj Kumar was conferred the Arjuna Award 2014 after compliance with a Delhi High Court order in his writ petition. The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports annual report records that the award was conferred on 26 November 2014. Therefore, the correct answer is Manoj Kumar, corresponding to option C.

Anju Bobby George, who originally won bronze (and the question states silver) at the 2005 World Athletics Final in Monaco, was upgraded to gold after the second-placed Russian athlete Tatyana Kotova was disqualified following retesting that detected a banned substance. The IAAF retrospectively reallocated medals in 2014, declaring Anju the gold medallist. The reason given correctly explains the assertion. Hence both A and R are true and R is the correct reason for A, corresponding to option a.

The War Museum of Rajasthan was inaugurated at Jaisalmer in 2015 by the Indian Army to commemorate the 1965 and 1971 wars and the role of the Indian armed forces in the western frontier. Located on the Jaisalmer-Jodhpur road, the museum displays captured Pakistani equipment, weapons, war memorabilia and artefacts of the Battle of Longewala and other engagements. The other options, Jodhpur, Barmer and Sirohi, do not host this specific war museum. Hence the answer is Jaisalmer, option b.

11 July is observed as World Population Day, established by UNDP in 1989; 12 August is International Youth Day, instituted by the UN General Assembly in 1999; 29 August is celebrated in India as National Sports Day, marking the birthday of hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand; and 8 September is International Literacy Day (described in older Indian textbooks as World Literacy Day), proclaimed by UNESCO in 1966. Hence A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i, corresponding to option d.

The Government of India launched the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Housing for All) on 25 June 2015 with the goal of providing pucca housing to every eligible household by 2022, the year that marks 75 years of Indian independence. The scheme covers urban (PMAY-U) and rural (PMAY-G) components and provides interest subsidies and direct construction support. The target year of completion is 2022, corresponding to option c. Subsequent extensions did not change the originally announced target of 2022.

The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation, launched in June 2015, identifies five thrust areas: water supply, sewerage and septage management, storm-water drainage to reduce urban flooding, urban transport including non-motorised modes, and creation of green spaces and parks especially for children. All five listed items in the question are part of the mission's thrust areas, so the comprehensive answer is (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v), corresponding to option d. AMRUT covers 500 cities across India.

Saina Nehwal won the silver medal at the 2015 BWF World Badminton Championships held at Jakarta, Indonesia. She lost the women's singles final to Carolina Marin of Spain, becoming the first Indian woman to win silver at the Worlds in singles. Sania Mirza is a tennis player and not associated with badminton. Martina Hingis is a Swiss tennis player. Nisha Siddhu is not the silver medallist of the 2015 Worlds. Hence the correct answer is Saina Nehwal, option d.

India won a Test cricket series in Sri Lanka in August 2015 under captain Virat Kohli, beating the hosts 2-1. This was India's first Test series victory in Sri Lanka since 1993, when Mohammad Azharuddin's team had won there. The gap of 22 years between the two series wins was widely highlighted in cricket reporting at the time. Therefore the duration after which India achieved a Test series win in Sri Lanka is 22 years, corresponding to option a.

The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana, launched in April 2015, provides institutional credit support to non-corporate, non-farm small and micro businesses. It now offers collateral-free loans up to Rs 20 lakh in four categories: Shishu up to Rs 50,000, Kishor above Rs 50,000 and up to Rs 5 lakh, Tarun above Rs 5 lakh and up to Rs 10 lakh, and Tarun Plus above Rs 10 lakh and up to Rs 20 lakh for eligible successful Tarun borrowers. Hence option d is correct.

Civil Services Day is observed in India on 21 April every year. The day commemorates the address by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to probationers of administrative services on 21 April 1947 at the Metcalfe House in Delhi, where he described civil servants as the steel frame of India. The Department of Administrative Reforms organises functions and the Prime Minister presents awards for excellence in public administration on this day. Hence Civil Services Day falls on 21 April, corresponding to option b.

'Two Years Eight Months and Twenty-Eight Nights' is a novel published in 2015 by Salman Rushdie. The title alludes to one thousand and one nights, the duration of the war between humans and jinn that frames the narrative. The book blends magical realism with contemporary themes. Ruskin Bond, Jhumpa Lahiri and Jairam Ramesh are accomplished writers in their own right but did not author this work. Hence the correct attribution is Salman Rushdie, corresponding to option b (note: spelling variant in the question).

The theme of World Population Day 2015, observed on 11 July, was 'Vulnerable Populations in Emergencies', highlighting the special needs of women, adolescents and children affected by disasters and humanitarian crises. UNFPA used the theme to draw attention to reproductive health services in conflict and disaster settings. Other listed themes correspond to different years: adolescent pregnancy was the 2013 theme, while reproductive health and population trends formed earlier themes. Hence the 2015 theme is option a.

This question was officially withdrawn from the RAS 2013 Prelims final answer key by RPSC. Statement (b) contains a factual error: Dr. Raja Ramanna received the Padma Vibhushan in 1975, not 1976. Statements (a), (c), and (d) are all correct, but no option matches that combination, so the question is intrinsically defective. RPSC removed it from scoring in the final key.

Rajasthan Tourism identifies Shakambhari Mata Temple at Sambhar Lake, with a temple dedicated to Goddess Shakambhari standing under a rocky outcrop jutting into the lake near Sirthula. Therefore the goddess temple associated with Sambhar Lake is Shakumbhri Devi, option C.

In medieval Rajputana kingdoms, the most important officer after the ruler was known as the Pradhan, who functioned as the chief minister of the state and headed the administrative apparatus, including revenue, military and judicial coordination. The terms Mahamatya and Mukhya Mantri are used in other regional traditions, while Sandhivigrahika referred specifically to a minister in charge of war and peace (foreign affairs) in earlier periods. The Rajput political vocabulary settled on Pradhan as the title for the chief executive minister.

The Rajasthan Legislative Assembly records that the Union of Rajasthan, consisting of Banswara, Bundi, Dungarpur, Jhalawar, Kishangarh, Pratapgarh, Shahapura, Tonk and Kota, was inaugurated on 25 March 1948. Kota was the capital, the Kota Naresh became Rajpramukh, and Shri Gokul Lal Asawa was appointed Chief Minister. Therefore option B is correct.

Molela, a village in Rajsamand district of Rajasthan, is famous across India for its terracotta craft, particularly the relief plaques depicting deities such as Dharmaraj, folk gods and animals. Generations of Kumhar potter families craft these terracotta tiles which are sold to communities across western India for installation in shrines. Kaithun is known for cotton sarees, Sanganer for hand-block printing and paper, and Kuchaman for stone carving and forts. Hence the terracotta-craft village is Molela, corresponding to option a.

Aerophones are wind instruments in which sound is produced by air vibration. Surnai (a double-reed shawm), Algoja (a paired flute) and Nagfani (a horn-like trumpet) are all aerophones. Kamayacha, however, is a bowed string instrument played by the Manganiyar community of western Rajasthan and is therefore a chordophone, not an aerophone. Hence among the four listed, only Kamayacha (item iv) is not an aerophone, corresponding to option c.

Among the listed water bodies, Kayalana Lake is correctly located in Jodhpur, Chand Baori is correctly placed at Abhaneri in Dausa district, and Gaib Sagar is in Dungarpur. Ghadsisar (Gadi Sar / Gadsisar) is a famous lake in Jaisalmer, not Bikaner; it was built by Maharawal Ghadsi Singh in the fourteenth century and is one of Jaisalmer's most iconic monuments. Therefore the incorrect pair is Ghadsisar with Bikaner, corresponding to option c.

The RPSC revised answer key marks response 1 for this question. In the given options, response 1 is Rishi Dutt Mehta, who is identified in the question context with the newspaper 'Rajasthan' from Beawar in the 1920s for political awakening. Haribhau Upadhyay, Munshi Samarthdan and Ram Narayan Chaudhari do not match the keyed response. Therefore the correct answer is option A, Rishi Dutt Mehta.

The Delhi-Shivalik pillar inscription of the Chauhan dynasty was inscribed during the reign of Vigraharaja IV, also known as Visaladeva, who ruled the Sakambhari Chauhan kingdom in the mid-twelfth century. The inscription, on an Ashokan pillar later moved to Delhi, records his military victories including those over the Tomaras, and his conquest of Dhillika (Delhi). Arnoraj, Prithviraja II and Prithviraja III ruled at other periods but did not author this particular inscription. Hence the answer is Vigraharaja IV, option b.