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UPSC 2017 Prelims-GS-I — Previous Year Questions with Answers

100 questions with answer keys and explanations.

  1. Q1

    With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India. 2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    A private member's bill is one introduced by any Member of Parliament who is not a Minister, regardless of whether they are elected or nominated. Statement 1 is therefore wrong as it restricts the definition to nominated members only. Statement 2 is also incorrect because private member's bills have been passed in Parliament earlier; the most cited example is the Rights of Transgender Persons Bill, 2014, but several private member's bills had been enacted decades before that, so it was not the first time in history. Hence neither statement is correct.

  2. Q2

    With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them. 2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron. 3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only ✓ Correct
    • B. 2 and 3 only
    • C. 1 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    Rigvedic Aryans used coats of mail and helmets in warfare, evidenced by terms like varman and sipra in the Rigveda, while no such evidence has been found at Indus Valley sites, making statement 1 correct. Statement 2 is wrong because Indus Valley people knew gold, silver, copper, tin and bronze, not iron. Statement 3 is correct: the horse was central to Rigvedic life and rituals, whereas there is no clear archaeological evidence of the domesticated horse in the mature Indus Valley Civilisation. Therefore only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

  3. Q3

    'Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to

    • A. Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. ✓ Correct
    • B. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.
    • C. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
    • D. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) scheme is a component of the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. It is designed to certify the skills already acquired by individuals through informal or non-formal channels by aligning them with the National Skills Qualification Framework. Trainees under the National Skill Development Programme who possess prior experience can have their competencies assessed and certified under this scheme, thereby formalising their skills for better employment opportunities. Hence option (d) best describes its purpose.

  4. Q4

    From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?

    • A. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve ✓ Correct
    • B. Nallamala Forest
    • C. Nagarhole National Park
    • D. Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve, located in the Erode district of Tamil Nadu along the Nilgiri biosphere, forms a critical ecological corridor connecting the Western Ghats with the Eastern Ghats. It facilitates gene flow between elephant and tiger populations of these two distinct mountain systems and links forests of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Nallamala forest and Seshachalam lie wholly within the Eastern Ghats, while Nagarhole is firmly within the Western Ghats. Sathyamangalam therefore uniquely serves as a biodiversity bridge between the two ranges, giving it considerable ecological importance.

  5. Q5

    One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

    • A. Privileges ✓ Correct
    • B. Restraints
    • C. Competition
    • D. Ideology

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    Equality in society implies that all individuals enjoy similar status, rights and opportunities and that no group enjoys special advantages over others. Its core implication is the absence of privileges granted on the basis of birth, caste, religion, gender or wealth. Restraints exist in every society to maintain order, competition is natural in human affairs, and ideology relates to political belief systems unrelated to equality. Hence the absence of privileges is the defining feature of social equality, making option (a) the correct choice.

  6. Q6 · Environment & Ecology

    Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only ✓ Correct
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) is a UN-backed framework that creates financial value for carbon stored in forests. It incentivizes developing countries to reduce emissions from forested lands.

  7. Q7

    Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

    • A. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
    • B. Participation of workers in the management of industries ✓ Correct
    • C. Right to work, education and public assistance
    • D. Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    Article 43A, providing for the participation of workers in the management of industries, was inserted into the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. Equal pay for equal work (Article 39(d)) and the right to work, education and public assistance (Article 41) were part of the original Constitution. Securing a living wage and humane conditions for workers (Article 43) was also original. Thus the principle added by the 42nd Amendment among the listed options is workers' participation in industrial management.

  8. Q8 · Science & Technology

    Which one of the following statements is correct?

    • A. Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
    • B. Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
    • C. Rights are claims of the citizens against the State. ✓ Correct
    • D. Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    Bt brinjal was placed under an indefinite moratorium in 2010 (Statement 1 wrong). GEAC under MoEFCC is the regulatory body (Statement 2 correct). India is among the largest Bt cotton producers (Statement 3 correct).

  9. Q9

    Which of the following gives 'Global Gender Gap Index' ranking to the countries of the world?

    • A. World Economic Forum ✓ Correct
    • B. UN Human Rights Council
    • C. UN Women
    • D. World Health Organization

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The Global Gender Gap Index has been published annually since 2006 by the World Economic Forum, the Geneva-based international organisation best known for its Davos meetings. The index measures gender-based gaps in economic participation, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment, ranking countries accordingly. It is not produced by the UN Human Rights Council, UN Women or the World Health Organization. Therefore the World Economic Forum is the correct issuing body.

  10. Q10

    Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade. 2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country. 3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 and 3 only
    • B. 2 only ✓ Correct
    • C. 3 only
    • D. 2 and 3 only

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    Smart India Hackathon 2017 was a non-stop digital product development competition launched by the Ministry of Education along with AICTE and partner ministries to harness the creativity of students for solving problems faced by ministries, departments and industry. It was not a Smart Cities scheme, so statement 1 is wrong, nor a programme for full digitisation of financial transactions, so statement 3 is wrong. Statement 2 correctly describes the initiative as identifying digital innovations to address national problems. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

  11. Q11

    Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? 1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates. 2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year. 3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only ✓ Correct
    • B. 1 and 2 only
    • C. 3 only
    • D. 2 and 3 only

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The Monetary Policy Committee, constituted under the amended RBI Act, decides the policy repo rate required to achieve the inflation target, making statement 1 correct. The MPC is a six-member body, not twelve, comprising the RBI Governor (Chair), a Deputy Governor, one RBI officer and three external members appointed by the Government for four-year terms; it is not reconstituted annually, so statement 2 is wrong. The Committee is chaired by the RBI Governor, not the Finance Minister, making statement 3 wrong. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

  12. Q12

    With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: 1. It is a song and dance performance. 2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance. 3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1, 2 and 3
    • B. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
    • C. 2 and 3 only
    • D. 1 only

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    Manipuri Sankirtana, inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in 2013, is a ritual performance combining song and dance, so statement 1 is correct. While cymbals (kartal) and the pung drum are central, drums are also integral to the performance, so statement 2 claiming cymbals are the only instruments is incorrect. The performance narrates the life and deeds of Lord Krishna in Vaishnava tradition, making statement 3 correct. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

  13. Q13

    Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule? 1. Lord Cornwallis 2. Alexander Read 3. Thomas Munro Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 1 and 3 only
    • C. 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    The Ryotwari system of land revenue settlement, in which the cultivator (ryot) was directly recognised as the proprietor and made responsible for paying revenue to the state, was first experimented with by Captain Alexander Read in the Baramahal region of Madras Presidency in the 1790s. It was developed and extensively implemented by Sir Thomas Munro as Governor of Madras from 1820. Lord Cornwallis, by contrast, was associated with the Permanent Settlement of Bengal in 1793. Therefore Read and Munro alone are correctly associated with Ryotwari.

  14. Q14

    In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique? 1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature. 2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. 3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 and 3 only
    • C. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    Bioremediation uses living microorganisms to enhance the natural biodegradation of pollutants, so statement 1 is correct. However, heavy metals such as cadmium and lead cannot be biodegraded; they can at best be immobilised, accumulated or transformed by microbes, so the claim that any heavy-metal contaminant can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation in statement 2 is wrong. Genetic engineering is indeed used to design microbes with specific degradation capabilities, making statement 3 correct. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are valid advantages.

  15. Q15

    The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

    • A. the participation of workers in the management of industries.
    • B. arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.
    • C. an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.
    • D. a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes. ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 was enacted by the colonial government against the backdrop of rising labour militancy. Its principal provisions established compulsory courts of inquiry and conciliation boards (a tribunal-like system) to settle industrial disputes and imposed restrictions on the right to strike, particularly in public utility services, by requiring prior notice and prohibiting strikes that aimed to coerce the government. It did not provide for worker participation in management, give arbitrary management powers, or involve British courts. Hence option (d) describing tribunals and a strike ban is correct.

  16. Q16

    Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

    • A. Federalism
    • B. Democratic decentralisation ✓ Correct
    • C. Administrative delegation
    • D. Direct democracy

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    Local self-government refers to the management of local affairs by elected representatives of the local population through institutions such as panchayats and municipalities. It embodies the idea that decision-making powers and developmental responsibilities should be devolved from higher tiers of government to grassroots units to ensure participatory governance. This is the very definition of democratic decentralisation, distinguishing it from federalism (sharing of powers between Centre and States), administrative delegation (mere transfer of executive functions), or direct democracy (citizens deciding policy directly). Hence option (b) is correct.

  17. Q17

    Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon 1. legislative function. 2. executive function. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    The Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV of the Constitution direct the State to apply these principles in making laws and in administering public affairs. They thus impose moral and political obligations on both the legislature, when framing laws, and the executive, when implementing policies and programmes. Although they are not enforceable by courts, they constitute fundamental governance principles binding on all organs that exercise legislative or executive power. Therefore both statements are correct.

  18. Q18

    The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' seen in the news refers to

    • A. ASEAN
    • B. BRICS
    • C. EU ✓ Correct
    • D. G20

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    The Digital Single Market Strategy was adopted by the European Commission in May 2015 as one of its top priorities. It seeks to remove regulatory barriers and unify the 28 (then) national markets of the European Union into a single digital market by improving access to digital goods and services, creating the right conditions for digital networks and services to flourish, and maximising the growth potential of the digital economy. It is not associated with ASEAN, BRICS or G20. Hence option (c), the EU, is correct.

  19. Q19

    At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at

    • A. Bhavnagar
    • B. Bheemunipatnam
    • C. Chandipur ✓ Correct
    • D. Nagapattinam

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    Chandipur, in the Balasore district of Odisha on the Bay of Bengal coast, is famous for its unique tidal phenomenon. The sea here recedes between four and five kilometres from the shoreline during low tide, exposing a vast stretch of sea floor that visitors can walk upon, and returns at high tide, twice each day. This rare ebb-and-flow gives the beach its distinctive character. Bhavnagar, Bheemunipatnam and Nagapattinam do not exhibit this kilometre-scale daily tidal recession. Hence option (c) is correct.

  20. Q20

    With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)', consider the following statements: 1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction. 2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government. 3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only ✓ Correct
    • C. 1 and 3 only
    • D. 2 and 3 only

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    Under the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, ignorance of the real owner does not exempt a transaction from being benami; the law looks at consideration and beneficial ownership, so statement 1 is incorrect. The Act expressly empowers the Government to confiscate properties held benami, making statement 2 correct. The Act establishes four authorities (Initiating Officer, Approving Authority, Administrator and Adjudicating Authority) and also provides for an Appellate Tribunal and further appeal to the High Court, so statement 3 is wrong. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

  21. Q21

    Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences? 1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected. 2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants. 3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 and 3 only
    • C. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    Butterflies are important pollinators for many flowering plants, so a sharp decline would adversely affect pollination, making statement 1 correct. Healthy butterfly populations help sustain plant diversity and natural plant defences; loss of pollination and weakened plants can render some cultivated crops more susceptible to fungal infections, supporting statement 2. Butterflies and their larvae form a key food source for predators such as wasps, spiders and insectivorous birds, so a fall in their numbers would reduce the populations of these predators, making statement 3 correct. Hence all three are likely consequences.

  22. Q22

    It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry? 1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents. 2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed. 3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 and 2 only
    • B. 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
    • C. 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    Algae-based biofuels can be produced in a variety of settings, including freshwater ponds, photobioreactors, and wastewater systems on land, not only in seas, so statement 1 is incorrect. The technologies involved have largely become commercially available and need not require continuous high-level expertise once construction is complete, so statement 2 is wrong. However, achieving economic viability typically requires very large-scale facilities that compete for land, water and nutrients, raising genuine ecological and social concerns, particularly in developing countries. Therefore only statement 3 represents a real limitation.

  23. Q23

    Which of the following are the objectives of 'National Nutrition Mission'? 1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. 3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. 4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
    • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
    • C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    • D. 3 and 4 only

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The National Nutrition Mission (POSHAN Abhiyaan), launched in 2017-18, aims to reduce malnutrition, stunting, undernutrition, anaemia and low birth weight by leveraging technology, convergence and community mobilisation. Creating awareness about malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers is a key target, so statement 1 is correct. Reducing anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women is an explicit goal, making statement 2 correct. The Mission does not specifically promote consumption of millets, coarse cereals, unpolished rice or poultry eggs as its objectives, so statements 3 and 4 are incorrect.

  24. Q24

    Consider the following statements: 1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions. 2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only ✓ Correct
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The Factories Act of 1881 dealt primarily with restrictions on child labour, working hours for children, and basic safety provisions in factories; it did not fix wages of industrial workers nor permit them to form trade unions. Trade union recognition came much later with the Trade Unions Act of 1926. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Narayan Meghaji Lokhande, often called the father of the Indian trade union movement, founded the Bombay Mill-Hands Association in 1890 and was a pioneering organiser of labour in British India, so statement 2 is correct.

  25. Q25

    In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration? 1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams 2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs 3. Subterranean deep saline formations Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 and 2 only
    • B. 3 only
    • C. 1 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    Carbon sequestration involves long-term storage of carbon dioxide to mitigate global warming. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams can adsorb CO2 onto coal surfaces and are recognised storage sites, especially when combined with enhanced coal-bed methane recovery. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs offer well-characterised, naturally sealed geological traps suitable for CO2 injection. Subterranean deep saline aquifers provide vast pore volumes within porous, permeable rock overlain by impermeable cap rock and are considered the largest potential global storage option. Therefore all three sites are valid carbon sequestration possibilities.

  26. Q26

    The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to

    • A. Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
    • B. Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
    • C. Impose censorship on national press.
    • D. Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States. ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    The Indian States Committee, popularly known as the Butler Committee, was appointed in 1927 under the chairmanship of Sir Harcourt Butler. Its terms of reference were to inquire into the relationship between the Paramount Power and the Indian princely states, to suggest means for more satisfactory adjustment of existing economic relations, and to examine financial and economic relations between British India and the states. Its main object was thus to improve and clarify the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian princely states, making option (d) correct.

  27. Q27

    The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

    • A. Developing solar power production in our country ✓ Correct
    • B. Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels in our country
    • C. Exporting our food products to other countries
    • D. Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The Domestic Content Requirement under the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission stipulated that a portion of solar photovoltaic projects awarded under specified categories must use solar cells and modules manufactured in India. The provision aimed to support indigenous solar manufacturing capacity. The United States successfully challenged it before the WTO Dispute Settlement Body, which ruled the requirement inconsistent with India's national-treatment obligations. The term is therefore associated with developing solar power production in India and not with TV channel licensing, food exports, or foreign educational campuses, making option (a) correct.

  28. Q28

    Consider the following statements: 1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. 2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    The Nuclear Security Summits were a series of biennial high-level international meetings initiated by US President Barack Obama in 2010 to strengthen nuclear material security worldwide; they were not held under the aegis of the United Nations, so statement 1 is incorrect. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an independent group of arms-control and non-proliferation experts founded in 2006, not an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency, so statement 2 is incorrect as well. Hence neither statement is correct.

  29. Q29

    Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?

    • A. Resident Indian citizens only
    • B. Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
    • C. All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments ✓ Correct
    • D. All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    The National Pension System is mandatory for all Central Government employees (except the Armed Forces) joining service on or after 1 January 2004; however, the official UPSC key for this question recognises the option referring to all Central Government employees joining on or after 1 April 2004 as correct in context, since it broadly captures the New Pension System cohort. NPS is open to non-resident Indians as well, can be joined between ages 18 and 70, and applies to State Government employees only after their respective notifications. Hence option (d) is the official answer.

  30. Q30

    With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements: 1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim. 2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta. 3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 and 3 only
    • B. 2 only ✓ Correct
    • C. 2 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The Teesta originates from the Tso Lhamo Lake and the Zemu Glacier in northern Sikkim, which is not the source of the Brahmaputra (whose source lies near Lake Manasarovar in Tibet), so statement 1 is incorrect. The Rangeet, originating in western Sikkim, is indeed an important tributary that joins the Teesta at Triveni near the Sikkim-West Bengal border, making statement 2 correct. The Teesta flows through West Bengal into Bangladesh, where it joins the Brahmaputra (Jamuna) and ultimately reaches the Bay of Bengal through the Meghna estuary, not directly on the Indo-Bangladesh border, so statement 3 is incorrect.

  31. Q31

    Consider the following statements: 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue. 2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    Zika virus is primarily transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, especially Aedes aegypti, the same vector responsible for dengue, chikungunya and yellow fever, particularly in tropical regions, so statement 1 is correct. Zika is also known to be transmitted sexually; the World Health Organization confirmed that the virus can be passed from an infected person to their sexual partner, making statement 2 correct. Other transmission routes include mother-to-foetus and blood transfusion. Hence both statements are correct.

  32. Q32

    Consider the following statements: 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only ✓ Correct
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The Bureau of Indian Standards mandates the ISI mark for several products under compulsory certification, including automotive tyres and tubes, so statement 1 is correct. AGMARK, however, is a quality certification mark for agricultural produce in India, issued by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare, Government of India, under the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937. It is not issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation, so statement 2 is incorrect. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

  33. Q33

    What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the 'National Agriculture Market' scheme? 1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities. 2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    The National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal launched in April 2016 that networks existing Agricultural Produce Market Committee mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities, so statement 1 is correct. By integrating mandis, e-NAM allows farmers to discover better prices through transparent online bidding, with prices reflecting the quality of their produce as graded under standardised parameters, making statement 2 correct. Hence both statements are advantages of implementing e-NAM.

  34. Q34

    With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements: 1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement. 2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    The National Intellectual Property Rights Policy adopted in 2016 explicitly reaffirms India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the WTO TRIPS Agreement, including the use of TRIPS flexibilities for public-health objectives, so statement 1 is correct. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (formerly DIPP) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for coordinating, implementing and monitoring the Policy, but it does not regulate all intellectual property rights in India; for example, copyrights are administered separately and various IP offices function under DIPP, so statement 2 as worded is incorrect.

  35. Q35

    According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law? 1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass 3. Wild buffalo Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 and 3 only
    • C. 1 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 lists species accorded the highest level of legal protection, with absolute prohibition on hunting except in narrowly defined circumstances such as threats to human life or for scientific purposes after permission. The Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus), Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur) and Wild Buffalo (Bubalus arnee) are all listed in Schedule I and thus enjoy this highest protection. Hence all three animals named in the statements cannot be hunted except under specified provisions, making option (d) correct.

  36. Q36

    Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    Fundamental Duties were inserted in Part IVA of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. They are not enforceable by any court, and the Constitution itself does not mandate any specific legislative process to enforce them, so statement 1 is incorrect. They are moral and civic obligations of citizens rather than correlatives of legal duties; while Parliament may enact laws to give effect to particular duties, the duties themselves are not legal duties correlating to others' rights, so statement 2 is also incorrect. Hence neither statement is correct.

  37. Q37

    Consider the following pairs: 1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association 2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty — Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha 3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
    • C. 2 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    Radhakanta Deb served as the first president of the British Indian Association founded in 1851, so pair 1 is correctly matched. The Madras Mahajana Sabha was founded in 1884 by M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer and P. Anandacharlu, not by Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty, who instead founded the Madras Native Association in 1852; hence pair 2 is wrongly matched. Surendranath Banerjee, along with Anand Mohan Bose, founded the Indian Association at Calcutta in 1876, making pair 3 correct. Therefore only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

  38. Q38

    Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

    • A. Liberty of thought
    • B. Economic liberty ✓ Correct
    • C. Liberty of expression
    • D. Liberty of belief

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The Preamble to the Indian Constitution secures to all citizens liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. While it speaks of justice in social, economic and political dimensions, it does not specifically mention economic liberty as a guaranteed objective. Justice (economic, social and political) and equality of status and opportunity are mentioned, but the term economic liberty is absent. Hence among the four options, the one not embodied in the Preamble is economic liberty, making option (b) correct.

  39. Q39

    With reference to 'Quality Council of India (QCI)', consider the following statements: 1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry. 2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    The Quality Council of India was established in 1997 as a non-profit autonomous society jointly by the Government of India through the then Ministry of Commerce and Industry and three apex industry associations (ASSOCHAM, CII and FICCI), so statement 1 is correct. The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of the industry to the Government, but the official 2017 UPSC key marks statement 2 as incorrect because the appointment process and recommending body do not align exactly with this description. Hence only statement 1 is treated as correct.

  40. Q40

    What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India? 1. To supply credit to small business units 2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers 3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
    • B. 2 and 3 only
    • C. 1 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    Small Finance Banks were licensed by the RBI to further financial inclusion by providing savings vehicles and supplying credit to underserved sections of the economy. Their stated objectives explicitly include supplying credit to small business units; small and marginal farmers; micro and small industries; and unorganised sector entities, including encouragement of young entrepreneurs in rural and semi-urban areas. Therefore all three purposes listed in the statements correctly describe the rationale for setting up SFBs, making option (d) correct.

  41. Q41

    With reference to 'Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)', consider the following statements: 1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme 'Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure'. 2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    The first Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD) was held in New Delhi, India, in December 2006 under the theme 'Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure', so statement 1 is correct. India does not host all the Annual Ministerial Conferences; subsequent conferences have been hosted by different member countries (such as Iran, Indonesia, Republic of Korea and Sri Lanka), and APMCHUD is not run in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN. Hence statement 2 is incorrect, making only statement 1 correct.

  42. Q42

    Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

    • A. the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women. ✓ Correct
    • B. the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
    • C. a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
    • D. a band of dedicated party workers.

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The superior virtue of democracy, as classically articulated by thinkers like John Stuart Mill, lies in its capacity to call into activity the intelligence, character and moral faculties of ordinary men and women through participation in self-government. By demanding that ordinary citizens exercise judgement, debate public issues, vote and assume responsibility, democracy develops their personalities and capabilities. It is not chiefly about strengthening the executive, producing exceptional leaders, or empowering party workers. Hence option (a) captures the philosophical justification of democracy.

  43. Q43

    Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the 'Unified Payments Interface (UPI)'?

    • A. Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments. ✓ Correct
    • B. Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.
    • C. FDI inflows will drastically increase.
    • D. Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The Unified Payments Interface, developed by the National Payments Corporation of India, allows instant inter-bank fund transfers using a virtual payment address linked directly to a bank account through a smartphone application, with multi-factor authentication. Because UPI itself enables instant account-to-account payments, the role of intermediary mobile wallets diminishes, as users no longer need to load money into a separate wallet to make digital payments. UPI does not by itself replace physical currency, attract FDI or specifically deliver subsidies, so option (a) is the most likely consequence.

  44. Q44

    The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 'String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are sometimes seen in the news in the context of

    • A. Observation and understanding of the Universe ✓ Correct
    • B. Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
    • C. Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
    • D. Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    Event horizon refers to the boundary surrounding a black hole beyond which no information can escape; singularity denotes the point of infinite density at the centre of a black hole or the initial state of the Big Bang; string theory is a theoretical framework attempting to unify quantum mechanics and gravity by treating fundamental particles as one-dimensional strings; and the Standard Model is the established theory of elementary particles and their interactions in particle physics. All four terms thus relate to observation and theoretical understanding of the Universe, making option (a) correct.

  45. Q45

    With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of 'genome sequencing', often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future? 1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants. 2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants. 3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 and 3 only
    • C. 1 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    Genome sequencing decodes the complete DNA of an organism. In agriculture, it identifies genetic markers linked to traits such as disease resistance and drought tolerance, supporting marker-assisted selection, so statement 1 is correct. By precisely targeting desirable genes, breeders can shorten the time needed to develop new crop varieties compared to conventional approaches, making statement 2 correct. Comparative sequencing of host plants and pathogens reveals genes governing infection, virulence and resistance, helping decipher host-pathogen relationships, making statement 3 correct. Hence all three applications are valid.

  46. Q46

    The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

    • A. the executive and legislature work independently.
    • B. it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
    • C. the executive remains responsible to the legislature. ✓ Correct
    • D. the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    The defining feature of a parliamentary form of government, in contrast to a presidential one, is that the executive is drawn from and remains continuously accountable to the legislature. The Council of Ministers holds office as long as it commands the confidence of the popular house and can be removed by a vote of no confidence, ensuring close legislative oversight. The other options misrepresent parliamentary systems, where executive and legislature are interlinked, leadership can change without elections, and continuity of policy varies. Hence option (c) captures its main advantage.

  47. Q47

    In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

    • A. Rights are correlative with Duties. ✓ Correct
    • B. Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
    • C. Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
    • D. Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    Rights and duties are correlative concepts: every right enjoyed by an individual implies a corresponding duty on others or on the State to respect or fulfil that right, and conversely the performance of duties by citizens helps create the social conditions necessary for the enjoyment of rights. The Indian constitutional scheme reflects this through the inclusion of Fundamental Rights in Part III and Fundamental Duties in Part IVA, designed to operate in tandem. Hence the most accurate description of the relationship between Rights and Duties in India is that they are correlative.

  48. Q48

    The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

    • A. The Preamble ✓ Correct
    • B. The Fundamental Rights
    • C. The Directive Principles of State Policy
    • D. The Fundamental Duties

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The Preamble to the Constitution of India serves as its philosophical introduction, summarising the values, aspirations and goals that guided the framers, including sovereignty, socialism, secularism, democracy, justice, liberty, equality and fraternity. Supreme Court decisions, notably in Berubari Union and Kesavananda Bharati, have observed that the Preamble reflects the mind of the makers of the Constitution and constitutes the key to understanding its meaning. Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties operationalise specific aspects but the Preamble best captures the makers' overall intent.

  49. Q49

    If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?

    • A. 6
    • B. 7 ✓ Correct
    • C. 8
    • D. 9

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    Travelling by road from Kohima (Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala) requires passing through a minimum sequence of contiguous Indian states. The shortest practical land route, including the origin and destination, traverses Nagaland, Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Kerala, totalling seven states. Routes attempting to use fewer states are not feasible because of the geographical layout of the Northeast and the absence of direct contiguity skipping any of these states. Hence the minimum number is seven, making option (b) correct.

  50. Q50

    The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question hour 3. Supplementary questions Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 and 3 only
    • C. 1 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    Parliament exercises continuous control over the Council of Ministers through several procedural devices. The Adjournment Motion is moved to draw the House's attention to a recent matter of urgent public importance and constitutes an extraordinary device that censures government inaction, so statement 1 is a valid means. Question Hour is the scheduled time during which Members put questions to ministers about the working of their departments, holding the executive to account, supporting statement 2. Supplementary questions arise during Question Hour to probe ministerial replies further, supporting statement 3. Hence all three are correct.

  51. Q51

    Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?

    • A. Kakinada
    • B. Motupalli ✓ Correct
    • C. Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
    • D. Nelluru

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    Motupalli, located on the Coromandel coast in present-day Andhra Pradesh, was a major seaport of the Kakatiya kingdom of Warangal during the thirteenth and fourteenth centuries. Marco Polo and other foreign travellers recorded its prosperity, and the famous Abhaya Sasana inscription of Kakatiya ruler Ganapatideva, issued at Motupalli, granted protection and tax concessions to foreign merchants trading there. Kakinada, Machilipatnam and Nelluru rose to prominence later under different powers. Hence Motupalli is the seaport associated with the Kakatiya kingdom.

  52. Q52

    With reference to 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative of the European Union. 2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets. 3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
    • B. 3 only
    • C. 2 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The Global Climate Change Alliance was launched by the European Union in 2007 to deepen dialogue and cooperation on climate change with developing countries most vulnerable to its impacts, particularly Least Developed Countries and Small Island Developing States, so statement 1 is correct. It provides technical assistance and financial support to integrate climate change considerations into national development policies and budgets, supporting statement 2. The initiative is implemented by the European Commission, not coordinated by WRI and WBCSD, so statement 3 is incorrect.

  53. Q53

    With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements: 1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism. 2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only ✓ Correct
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    Sautrantika and Sammitiya are not Jain sects but well-known schools of early Buddhism, so statement 1 is incorrect. The Sarvastivada school of Buddhism held the doctrine that all dharmas (phenomenal constituents) exist in past, present and future, meaning that, although their manifest functioning is momentary, the constituents themselves persist in some latent form across the three times. This precisely matches statement 2, making it correct. Hence only statement 2 is accurate.

  54. Q54

    Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries? 1. Jordan 2. Iraq 3. Lebanon 4. Syria Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
    • B. 2 and 3 only
    • C. 3 and 4 only ✓ Correct
    • D. 1, 3 and 4 only

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    Among the listed countries, only those with coastlines on the Mediterranean Sea border it. Lebanon has an extensive Mediterranean coastline along its western edge, and Syria's western coast also faces the Mediterranean, so statements 3 and 4 are correct. Jordan is landlocked except for a short outlet on the Gulf of Aqaba (Red Sea), and Iraq has a tiny coastline only on the Persian Gulf; neither touches the Mediterranean, making statements 1 and 2 incorrect. Hence only Lebanon and Syria, option (c), border the Mediterranean.

  55. Q55

    With reference to 'National Investment and Infrastructure Fund', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog. 2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4,00,000 crore at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund was set up in 2015 as a Category-II Alternative Investment Fund registered with SEBI to enhance infrastructure financing in India. It is sponsored by the Government of India through the Department of Economic Affairs but is not an organ of NITI Aayog, so statement 1 is incorrect. The proposed corpus of NIIF is around Rs 40,000 crore, not Rs 4,00,000 crore, with 49 percent contribution from the Government, so statement 2 is also incorrect. Hence neither statement is correct.

  56. Q56

    The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an

    • A. ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
    • B. World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital. ✓ Correct
    • C. Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
    • D. UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The Global Infrastructure Facility is a partnership platform launched and managed by the World Bank Group in collaboration with multilateral development banks, governments and private sector investors. It provides funding and technical assistance for the early-stage preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships in emerging markets and developing economies, with the explicit purpose of mobilising private sector and institutional investor capital. It is not an ASEAN, OECD-led or UNCTAD initiative. Hence option (b) accurately describes the GIF.

  57. Q57

    For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

    • A. anyone residing in India.
    • B. a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
    • C. any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency. ✓ Correct
    • D. any citizen of India.

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person can file a nomination for election to the Lok Sabha only if they are a citizen of India and their name appears in the electoral roll of any parliamentary constituency in the country. Residence in the constituency contested is not required, but enrolment as a voter somewhere in India is mandatory. Mere residence or generic citizenship without electoral enrolment does not qualify a person to contest. Hence option (c) describing a citizen whose name is in some electoral roll is correct.

  58. Q58

    Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only. 2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only. 3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 and 2 only
    • B. 3 only ✓ Correct
    • C. 2 and 3 only
    • D. 1 and 3 only

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The Indian Himalayas extend across 13 states and union territories including Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, West Bengal, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Meghalaya, far more than five, so statement 1 is incorrect. The Western Ghats run through six states (Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu), so statement 2 is also incorrect. Pulicat Lake straddles the border between Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh, lying in two states, making statement 3 correct. Hence only statement 3 is correct.

  59. Q59

    Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

    • A. Measuring oxygen levels in blood
    • B. Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
    • C. Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems ✓ Correct
    • D. Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    Biological Oxygen Demand measures the quantity of dissolved oxygen consumed by aerobic micro-organisms while decomposing organic matter present in a water sample over a specified period, usually five days at twenty degrees Celsius. A high BOD value indicates a heavy organic pollution load, since more oxygen is required to break down the organic matter, making it a standard criterion for assessing pollution in aquatic ecosystems such as rivers, lakes and effluents. It is not used to measure oxygen in blood, forests or high-altitude air, so option (c) is correct.

  60. Q60

    With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct? 1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all. 2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only. 3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1, 2 and 3
    • B. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
    • C. 2 and 3 only
    • D. 1 only

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    UN-Habitat is the United Nations agency for human settlements. It has been mandated by the General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities with the goal of providing adequate shelter for all, supporting statement 1. Its partners are not limited to governments and local authorities; UN-Habitat works extensively with civil society, academia, the private sector and community-based organisations, so statement 2 is incorrect. It contributes to the broader UN objectives of poverty reduction and improving access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation, supporting statement 3.

  61. Q61

    With reference to 'National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)', which of the statements given below is/are correct? 1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning. 2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only ✓ Correct
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The National Skills Qualification Framework, notified in 2013, is a competency-based framework that organises qualifications across ten levels. Crucially, learners can acquire NSQF-aligned certification not only through formal education but also through non-formal and informal learning recognised under processes such as Recognition of Prior Learning, so statement 1 is incorrect. A central outcome of NSQF is to enable horizontal and vertical mobility between vocational education, general education and the labour market through credit transfer mechanisms, making statement 2 correct. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

  62. Q62

    In the context of Indian history, the principle of 'Dyarchy (diarchy)' refers to

    • A. Division of the central legislature into two houses.
    • B. Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.
    • C. Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
    • D. Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories. ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    The principle of Dyarchy was introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) at the provincial level. Under it, the subjects within the provincial sphere were divided into two categories: Reserved subjects (such as finance, law and order, revenue) administered by the Governor through his Executive Council, and Transferred subjects (such as education, health, local self-government, agriculture) administered by the Governor on the advice of Indian ministers responsible to the legislature. Hence dyarchy refers to dividing provincial subjects into two categories, making option (d) correct.

  63. Q63

    Consider the following in respect of 'National Career Service': 1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India. 2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    The National Career Service portal was launched in 2015 as a Mission Mode Project under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Department of Personnel and Training, so statement 1 is incorrect. It functions as an integrated platform connecting jobseekers with employers, career counsellors and skills providers, and is aimed at improving employment opportunities for all categories of jobseekers, including educated youth, not specifically uneducated youth, so statement 2 is also incorrect. Hence neither statement, as worded, is correct.

  64. Q64

    Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)', recently seen in the news?

    • A. It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
    • B. It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties. ✓ Correct
    • C. It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
    • D. It is an important provision in 'The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code' recently implemented by the Government.

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets, introduced by the Reserve Bank of India in June 2016, was a regulatory framework for the deep financial restructuring of large stressed accounts at corporates facing genuine difficulties. Under S4A, the lenders bifurcated outstanding debt into a sustainable portion serviceable from current cash flows and an unsustainable portion converted into equity or other instruments, allowing the underlying business to continue operating. It is therefore not an environmental, disinvestment or insolvency-code provision, making option (b) the correct description.

  65. Q65

    Consider the following statements: 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries. 2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only ✓ Correct
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The Climate and Clean Air Coalition to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants is a voluntary partnership of governments, intergovernmental organisations, businesses and civil society, founded in 2012 by UNEP and several countries, not by the G20, so statement 1 is incorrect. Its work programme focuses on reducing emissions of short-lived climate pollutants such as methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons, which are powerful contributors to near-term warming and air pollution. Hence statement 2 is correct, making option (b) the correct choice.

  66. Q66

    With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)' sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. 2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino's impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only ✓ Correct
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The Indian Ocean Dipole is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean (around the Arabian Sea) and the tropical Eastern Indian Ocean (off the coast of Indonesia), not the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean, so statement 1 is incorrect. The IOD interacts with the El Nino Southern Oscillation; a positive IOD can offset the suppressing effect of El Nino on the Indian summer monsoon, while a negative IOD can amplify it. Hence statement 2 is correct, making option (b) the correct choice.

  67. Q67

    If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

    • A. Bhitarkanika Mangroves
    • B. Chambal River ✓ Correct
    • C. Pulicat Lake
    • D. Deepor Beel

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus) is a critically endangered, fish-eating crocodilian native to Indian river systems. Its largest surviving wild population thrives in the National Chambal Sanctuary on the Chambal River, a tri-state protected area extending across Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. The clear, fast-flowing Chambal with its sandy banks provides ideal nesting and basking habitat. Bhitarkanika is famed for saltwater crocodiles, Pulicat for flamingos, and Deepor Beel is a Ramsar wetland in Assam. Hence the Chambal River is the best place to see gharials.

  68. Q68

    Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): 1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. 2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only ✓ Correct
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The Indian Ocean Naval Symposium is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among the navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. The inaugural IONS, however, was held in February 2008, not 2015, in New Delhi under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy, so statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 correctly describes the symposium as a voluntary regional maritime security cooperation initiative. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

  69. Q69

    The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at

    • A. Ajanta ✓ Correct
    • B. Badami
    • C. Bagh
    • D. Ellora

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani, depicting a serene figure holding a lotus, is one of the most celebrated mural paintings of ancient India and is found in Cave 1 of the Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra. Datable to the late fifth or early sixth century during the Vakataka period, the work is widely reproduced as an exemplar of classical Indian painting. The Badami, Bagh and Ellora cave complexes contain other notable murals and sculptures, but the iconic Padmapani mural specifically belongs to Ajanta.

  70. Q70

    Consider the following pairs: Traditions — Communities 1. Chaliha Sahib Festival — Sindhis 2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra — Gonds 3. Wari-Warkari — Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    • A. 1 only ✓ Correct
    • B. 2 and 3 only
    • C. 1 and 3 only
    • D. None of the above

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The Chaliha Sahib Festival is a forty-day religious observance celebrated by the Sindhi community in honour of Jhulelal, particularly observed in Ulhasnagar and other Sindhi settlements, so pair 1 is correctly matched. The Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra is a celebrated pilgrimage of the people of Uttarakhand (Garhwal-Kumaon hills), associated with goddess Nanda Devi and not the Gond tribe, so pair 2 is wrongly matched. The Wari-Warkari pilgrimage tradition belongs to Maharashtra's Varkari sect devoted to Lord Vitthal, not the Santhals, so pair 3 is wrongly matched.

  71. Q71

    Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? 1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land 2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field 3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 and 2 only
    • B. 3 only
    • C. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    Reduced or zero tillage minimises soil disturbance, preserves soil structure and reduces evaporative water loss from the soil surface, thereby conserving water, supporting statement 1. Gypsum is applied to reclaim sodic and saline soils and to improve soil structure for better infiltration but is not primarily a water-conservation practice; in irrigation contexts it is not used to conserve water, so statement 2 is incorrect. Leaving crop residue on the field acts as a mulch, lowering surface temperature, reducing evaporation and improving water retention, supporting statement 3. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct.

  72. Q72

    Consider the following statements: The nation-wide 'Soil Health Card Scheme' aims at 1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. 2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. 3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • A. 1 and 2 only
    • B. 3 only ✓ Correct
    • C. 2 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The nationwide Soil Health Card Scheme, launched in 2015, provides farmers with detailed reports on the nutrient status of their soils along with recommendations for appropriate dosage of nutrients and soil amendments. Its principal aim is to promote balanced and judicious use of fertilizers, thereby preventing overuse, improving soil fertility and enhancing productivity, supporting statement 3. The scheme does not aim to expand cultivable area under irrigation, so statement 1 is incorrect, nor is it a tool for banks to assess loan quanta against soil quality, so statement 2 is incorrect.

  73. Q73

    Consider the following pairs: Commonly used / consumed materials — Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them 1. Lipstick — Lead 2. Soft drinks — Brominated vegetable oils 3. Chinese fast food — Monosodium glutamate Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 and 3 only
    • C. 1 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    Lipsticks have repeatedly been found by regulators to contain trace lead derived from colour pigments, raising consumer-safety concerns, so pair 1 is correctly matched. Brominated vegetable oils have been used as emulsifiers in some citrus-flavoured soft drinks to keep flavour oils suspended, and their safety has been controversial in several jurisdictions, supporting pair 2. Monosodium glutamate is widely used as a flavour enhancer in Chinese fast food and has long been linked to the so-called Chinese restaurant syndrome controversy, supporting pair 3. Hence all three pairs are correctly matched.

  74. Q74

    Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays? 1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates. 2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs. 3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 and 3 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
    • D. None of the above statements is correct

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    Organic Light Emitting Diodes use organic compounds that emit light when an electric current is applied, allowing the display layers to be deposited on flexible plastic substrates rather than rigid glass, supporting statement 1. Their thin, flexible, lightweight nature makes possible roll-up displays that can be embedded into clothing and curved surfaces, supporting statement 2. Because OLEDs do not require a backlight and can be made with transparent electrodes, transparent displays are possible, supporting statement 3. Hence all three advantages over Liquid Crystal Displays are correct.

  75. Q75

    Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples? 1. Arasavalli 2. Amarakantak 3. Omkareshwar Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only ✓ Correct
    • B. 2 and 3 only
    • C. 1 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    Arasavalli, near Srikakulam in Andhra Pradesh, is famous for the Suryanarayana Swamy temple, an ancient Sun temple dating from around the seventh century, so statement 1 is correct. Amarakantak, in Madhya Pradesh, is renowned as the source of the Narmada and Sone rivers and is a site of Shiva and Narmada temples but not Sun temples, so statement 2 is incorrect. Omkareshwar, on an island in the Narmada in Madhya Pradesh, is one of the twelve Jyotirlingas dedicated to Lord Shiva and is not a Sun temple site, so statement 3 is incorrect. Hence only Arasavalli is correct.

  76. Q76

    Consider the following statements: 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    India follows the first-past-the-post system for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, where the candidate securing the highest number of valid votes wins, regardless of whether they cross fifty per cent, so statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not require that the post of Speaker go to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker to the Opposition; while a healthy convention has evolved of giving the Deputy Speaker's post to the Opposition, it is not a constitutional provision. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.

  77. Q77

    Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991? 1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously. 2. Share of India's exports in world trade increased. 3. FDI inflows increased. 4. India's foreign exchange reserves increased enormously. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    • A. 1 and 4 only
    • B. 2, 3 and 4 only ✓ Correct
    • C. 2 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    After 1991 liberalisation, the share of agriculture in GDP has declined steadily, not increased, with services dominating output, so statement 1 is wrong. India's share in world merchandise and services exports has increased significantly since 1991 as the economy opened up, so statement 2 is correct. Foreign Direct Investment inflows rose dramatically due to liberalised foreign-investment policies, supporting statement 3. India's foreign exchange reserves grew enormously from a level of about one billion dollars in 1991 to several hundred billion dollars, supporting statement 4. Hence only statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

  78. Q78

    What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?

    • A. Production of biolarvicides
    • B. Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
    • C. Reproductive cloning of animals ✓ Correct
    • D. Production of organisms free of diseases

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer is a laboratory technique in which the nucleus of a body (somatic) cell from a donor organism is transferred into an enucleated egg cell, which is then stimulated to develop into an embryo. The resulting embryo carries the genetic material of the donor and, when implanted into a surrogate mother, can produce an offspring that is genetically identical to the donor, achieving reproductive cloning. The most famous example is Dolly the sheep, the first mammal cloned via SCNT. Hence option (c) is correct.

  79. Q79

    Consider the following statements: 1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country. 2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    The National Payments Corporation of India is an umbrella organisation set up by the RBI and the Indian Banks' Association in 2008 to operate retail payment and settlement systems. By promoting safe, efficient and accessible electronic payment products, NPCI helps deepen financial inclusion in the country, supporting statement 1. NPCI launched RuPay in 2012 as India's domestic card payment scheme, designed as a low-cost alternative to international card schemes, supporting statement 2. Hence both statements are correct.

  80. Q80

    The term 'M-STrIPES' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

    • A. Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
    • B. Maintenance of Tiger Reserves ✓ Correct
    • C. Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
    • D. Security of National Highways

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    M-STrIPES stands for Monitoring System for Tigers Intensive Protection and Ecological Status. It is a software-based monitoring system launched by the National Tiger Conservation Authority for use by patrolling staff in tiger reserves. Field personnel collect data on patrols, wildlife sightings, signs of poaching and ecological observations using GPS-enabled handheld devices, and the information is uploaded for analysis to strengthen reserve management. It is therefore associated with the maintenance and protection of tiger reserves rather than captive breeding, satellite navigation or highway security, making option (b) correct.

  81. Q81

    What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing 'Goods and Services Tax (GST)'? 1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. 2. It will drastically reduce the 'Current Account Deficit' of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. 3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only ✓ Correct
    • B. 2 and 3 only
    • C. 1 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The Goods and Services Tax replaces a multitude of indirect taxes levied earlier by the Centre and the States, such as excise duty, service tax, VAT, octroi and entry tax, with a single, integrated, destination-based consumption tax, thereby creating a unified national market, supporting statement 1. GST does not directly reduce the current account deficit, which depends on trade balances and capital flows, so statement 2 is incorrect. While GST is expected to lift growth modestly, claims that it will allow India to overtake China in the near future are speculative and not a stated benefit, making statement 3 incorrect.

  82. Q82

    'Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and

    • A. European Union ✓ Correct
    • B. Gulf Cooperation Council
    • C. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
    • D. Shanghai Cooperation Organization

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement is the proposed comprehensive free-trade agreement under negotiation between India and the European Union, covering trade in goods and services, investment, geographical indications, government procurement and other areas. Negotiations were launched in 2007 and have continued in successive rounds. The agreement is not associated with the Gulf Cooperation Council, OECD or Shanghai Cooperation Organisation. Hence option (a), the European Union, is correct.

  83. Q83

    Consider the following statements: 1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO. 2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013. 3. TFA came into force in January 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
    • B. 1 and 3 only
    • C. 2 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    India ratified the WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement in April 2016, supporting statement 1. The TFA emerged from the WTO's Bali Ministerial Conference of December 2013 as part of the Bali Package, supporting statement 2. The TFA, however, came into force on 22 February 2017, after two-thirds of WTO members ratified it, not in January 2016, so statement 3 is incorrect. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

  84. Q84

    What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

    • A. India's trade with African countries will enormously increase.
    • B. India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
    • C. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. ✓ Correct
    • D. Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    Chabahar Port lies on the Gulf of Oman in southeastern Iran and is being developed by India through investment in the Shahid Beheshti terminal. Its strategic value to India lies in providing a sea-land transit corridor that bypasses Pakistani territory: cargo can move by sea from India to Chabahar and onwards by road and rail through Iran to Afghanistan and the Central Asian republics. The port is not principally about African trade, oil-producing Arab relationships or Pakistan-protected pipelines, making option (c) the correct strategic significance.

  85. Q85

    In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents? 1. Service providers 2. Data centres 3. Body corporate Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 1 and 2 only
    • C. 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    The Information Technology Act, 2000 read with the rules notified for the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) requires service providers, intermediaries, data centres and body corporate to mandatorily report cyber security incidents to CERT-In within prescribed timelines. The aim is to enable rapid response, coordination and analysis of incidents in the national cyberspace. All three categories listed are statutorily obliged to report cyber security incidents in India, making option (d) correct.

  86. Q86

    Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

    • A. Fundamental Right
    • B. Natural Right
    • C. Constitutional Right
    • D. Legal Right ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    The right to vote and the right to be elected in India are not Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III, nor mere natural rights, nor only legal rights conferred by ordinary statute. They are constitutional rights flowing primarily from Article 326 of the Constitution, which mandates elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies on the basis of adult suffrage, with the conditions of franchise and contesting laid down by the Representation of the People Acts. The Supreme Court has consistently characterised them as constitutional rights. Hence option (c) is correct.

  87. Q87

    What is the purpose of 'evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)' project?

    • A. To detect neutrinos
    • B. To detect gravitational waves ✓ Correct
    • C. To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
    • D. To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA), now known as LISA, is a space-based gravitational-wave observatory mission led by the European Space Agency in collaboration with NASA. It will deploy three spacecraft in a triangular formation millions of kilometres apart, using laser interferometry to detect minute changes in the distance between freely falling test masses caused by passing gravitational waves from sources such as merging supermassive black holes. It does not detect neutrinos, missiles or solar-flare communication impacts, so option (b) is correct.

  88. Q88

    What is the purpose of 'Vidyanjali Yojana'? 1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. 2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. 3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 2 only ✓ Correct
    • B. 3 only
    • C. 1 and 2 only
    • D. 2 and 3 only

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    Vidyanjali Yojana, launched in 2016 by the Ministry of Education, is a school volunteer programme designed to enhance the quality of teaching and learning in government schools by inviting volunteers from the private sector, retired professionals, NRIs and the wider community to contribute their time and expertise to schools, so statement 2 is correct. The scheme does not enable foreign universities to open campuses (statement 1) and is primarily about volunteer engagement rather than monetary contributions for infrastructure (statement 3). Hence only statement 2 is correct.

  89. Q89

    What is the aim of the programme 'Unnat Bharat Abhiyan'?

    • A. Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government's education system and local communities.
    • B. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. ✓ Correct
    • C. Strengthening India's scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.
    • D. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    Unnat Bharat Abhiyan, launched by the then Ministry of Human Resource Development in 2014, aims to connect institutions of higher education such as IITs, NITs and other universities with local communities, especially rural ones, to address the development challenges of those communities through appropriate technologies and knowledge interventions. Participating institutions adopt clusters of villages and work on issues such as livelihoods, water, sanitation, health and energy. It is therefore not directly about literacy, scientific research per se, or general human-capital allocations, making option (b) correct.

  90. Q90

    Consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 and 2 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. 2 and 3 only
    • D. 3 only ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    The Election Commission of India is currently a three-member body comprising the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners, not five, so statement 1 is incorrect. The election schedule for general and bye-elections is announced by the Election Commission of India itself in exercise of its constitutional powers, not by the Ministry of Home Affairs, so statement 2 is incorrect. Under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the Election Commission resolves disputes relating to splits and mergers of recognised political parties, supporting statement 3. Hence only statement 3 is correct.

  91. Q91 · Environment & Ecology

    In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?

    • A. It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger. ✓ Correct
    • B. It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
    • C. It is endemic to a particular region of India.
    • D. Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    The Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act 1972, which provides the highest degree of protection. It is also Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List with fewer than 150 individuals remaining, mainly in Rajasthan and Gujarat.

  92. Q92

    In India, Judicial Review implies

    • A. the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders. ✓ Correct
    • B. the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
    • C. the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
    • D. the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    Judicial Review in India refers to the power of the courts, principally the Supreme Court and the High Courts, to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders and to strike them down if they are found to violate the provisions or spirit of the Constitution. It is grounded in Articles 13, 32, 226 and 227. It is not concerned with assessing the wisdom of laws, with reviewing legislation before presidential assent, or with reviewing earlier judicial decisions, which is judicial reconsideration. Hence option (a) is correct.

  93. Q93

    With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events: 1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy 2. Quit India Movement launched 3. Second Round Table Conference What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

    • A. 1-2-3
    • B. 2-1-3
    • C. 3-2-1 ✓ Correct
    • D. 3-1-2

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    The Second Round Table Conference was held in London from September to December 1931, attended by Mahatma Gandhi as the sole Congress representative. The Quit India Movement was launched on 8 August 1942 following the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee. The Royal Indian Navy Mutiny took place at Bombay and other ports in February 1946, when ratings of the RIN revolted against British officers and conditions of service. Hence the chronological sequence is Second Round Table Conference (1931), Quit India Movement (1942), and the RIN Mutiny (1946), giving 3-2-1.

  94. Q94

    Consider the following statements: 1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • A. 1 only
    • B. 2 only
    • C. Both 1 and 2
    • D. Neither 1 nor 2 ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    India's tax-to-GDP ratio has fluctuated rather than steadily increased over the last decade; it dipped after 2007-08, recovered modestly and has remained broadly in a narrow band, so statement 1 is incorrect. The fiscal deficit as a share of GDP has also fluctuated: it widened sharply during the post-2008 stimulus, then narrowed under successive consolidation roadmaps targeting around three per cent of GDP, so it has not steadily increased, making statement 2 incorrect. Hence neither statement is correct.

  95. Q95

    Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?

    • A. Corbett National Park
    • B. Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary ✓ Correct
    • C. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
    • D. Sariska National Park

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    The Asiatic Lion (Panthera leo persica) is found in the wild only in the Gir forest of Gujarat, leaving the entire population vulnerable to disease outbreaks or natural disasters. To create a second wild population, scientists and the Supreme Court endorsed translocating some lions to the Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh, which has suitable habitat and prey base. The other listed sites — Corbett, Mudumalai and Sariska — are tiger reserves chosen for different conservation programmes. Hence option (b), Kuno Palpur, is the proposed translocation site.

  96. Q96

    Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1 and 2 only
    • B. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
    • C. 2 and 3 only
    • D. 1, 2 and 3

    Answer: B

    Show explanation

    When President's Rule is imposed under Article 356, the State Legislative Assembly is normally suspended or dissolved at the President's discretion, but suspension is also a possibility, so its dissolution is not a necessary consequence, making statement 1 a valid example of a non-necessary outcome. Local bodies such as panchayats and municipalities continue to function and are not dissolved on imposition of President's Rule, so statement 3 also lists a non-necessary consequence. The Council of Ministers in the State, however, is invariably dismissed, so statement 2 IS a necessary consequence. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct.

  97. Q97

    Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Abolition of untouchability 3. Protection of the interests of minorities 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    • A. 1, 2 and 4 only
    • B. 2, 3 and 4 only
    • C. 1 and 4 only ✓ Correct
    • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    The Right against Exploitation under Articles 23 and 24 of the Constitution prohibits two specific evils: traffic in human beings and forced labour (begar), and employment of children below fourteen years of age in factories, mines and other hazardous occupations. Hence statements 1 and 4 fall within this right. Abolition of untouchability is covered separately under the Right to Equality (Article 17), and protection of the interests of minorities is dealt with under Articles 29 and 30 (Cultural and Educational Rights). Therefore only statements 1 and 4 are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation.

  98. Q98

    Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

    • A. Sumatra ✓ Correct
    • B. Borneo
    • C. Java
    • D. Sri Lanka

    Answer: A

    Show explanation

    Great Nicobar is the southernmost island of the Andaman and Nicobar group, with Indira Point at its southern tip being the southernmost point of India. The closest large landmass to Great Nicobar lies just across the Six Degree Channel to the southeast: the northern tip of the Indonesian island of Sumatra, only about 145 kilometres away. Borneo and Java lie much farther across the Indonesian archipelago, while Sri Lanka lies far to the west across the Bay of Bengal. Hence Sumatra, option (a), is geographically closest.

  99. Q99

    Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

    • A. An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
    • B. A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
    • C. A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people. ✓ Correct
    • D. A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

    Answer: C

    Show explanation

    The Cabinet form of government is the institutional embodiment of parliamentary democracy in which the executive functions on the basis of collective responsibility to the popularly elected legislature, and through it, to the people. All ministers swim and sink together: they collectively own the policies and decisions of the Cabinet and are jointly accountable to Parliament. The other options misrepresent it as a public-relations device, an executive booster, or a leader-strengthening tool, none of which captures the underlying principle. Hence option (c) reflects the core idea.

  100. Q100

    Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

    • A. There is an independent judiciary in India.
    • B. Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
    • C. The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
    • D. It is the result of an agreement among the federating units. ✓ Correct

    Answer: D

    Show explanation

    Indian federalism features an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court (option a is a feature), a clear three-fold division of subjects between the Centre and the States in the Seventh Schedule (option b is a feature), and unequal representation of States in the Rajya Sabha based broadly on population rather than equal seats per state as in classical federations (option c is a feature). However, Indian federalism arose from a constitutional grant by the framers, not from an agreement among pre-existing federating units; in fact, the Constitution describes India as a 'Union of States'. Hence option (d) is not a feature.