MCQ
Indian Polity MCQ - Practice Questions with Answers
Solve 5 Indian Polity questions for RAS/RPSC preparation.
Practice questions
Q1Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Constitutional change) 1. Insertion of Part IVA containing the Fundamental Duties 2. Omission of Article 31 from Part III and introduction of Article 300A 3. Making Articles 20 and 21 non-suspendable even during a Proclamation of Emergency List-II (Amendment Act) a. Forty-second Amendment b. Forty-fourth Amendment Codes:
Part IVA (Fundamental Duties) was inserted by the Forty-second Amendment, so pair 1 matches a. Article 31 was omitted from Part III and Article 300A was introduced by the Forty-fourth Amendment, so pair 2 matches b. The bar on suspending Articles 20 and 21 during Emergency is also a Forty-fourth change, so pair 3 matches b. The code is therefore 1-a, 2-b, 3-b.
Q2Consider the following statements about Article 136 of the Constitution of India: 1. The Supreme Court may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order of any court or tribunal in the territory of India. 2. Clause (1) of this Article applies equally to every judgment, determination, sentence or order of a court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces. 3. A High Court certificate under Articles 132–134 is a precondition before the Supreme Court can entertain any petition under Article 136. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Article 136(1) gives the Supreme Court discretionary special leave over judgments of courts and tribunals in India. Article 136(2) expressly provides that nothing in clause (1) applies to judgments, determinations, sentences or orders of courts or tribunals constituted under any law relating to the Armed Forces, so statement 2 is false. Special leave under Article 136 is independent of High Court certificates under Articles 132–134, so statement 3 is false. Only statement 1 stands; hence option A.
Q3With reference to the Attorney-General for India and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, consider the following statements: 1. Both officers are appointed by the President. 2. Both officers hold office during the pleasure of the President. 3. The Comptroller and Auditor-General can be removed from office only in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. 4. In the performance of his duties, the Attorney-General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Articles 76 and 148 both vest appointment in the President, so statement 1 is true. Only the Attorney-General holds office during the pleasure of the President; the Comptroller and Auditor-General is removable solely in like manner and on the like grounds as a Supreme Court Judge, so statement 2 is false and statement 3 is true. Article 76 also gives the Attorney-General the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India, so statement 4 is true. The correct set is therefore 1, 3 and 4 only.
Q4Consider the following subjects under the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India: 1. Forests 2. Education, including technical education, medical education and universities, subject to the provisions of entries 63, 64, 65 and 66 of List I 3. Administration of justice; constitution and organisation of all courts, except the Supreme Court and the High Courts 4. Weights and measures except establishment of standards 5. Police (including railway and village police) subject to the provisions of entry 2A of List I How many of the subjects listed above presently stand in the Concurrent List (List III)?
Forests stand as Concurrent Entry 17A; Education is Concurrent Entry 25; administration of justice (except the Supreme Court and the High Courts) is Concurrent Entry 11A; and weights and measures except establishment of standards is Concurrent Entry 33A—four Concurrent subjects. Police remains Entry 2 of the State List, so it is not counted. The derived total is therefore four.
Q5Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Body) 1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 2. Ashok Mehta Committee 3. Sarkaria Commission 4. Punchhi Commission List-II (Associated thrust) a. Two-tier Mandal Panchayat and Zila Parishad model b. Simultaneous three-tier village panchayat, panchayat samiti and zila parishad scheme c. Permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263 as a Centre–State forum d. Later Centre–State relations panel whose recommendations were examined by the Inter-State Council Standing Committee Codes: 1 2 3 4
Balwant Rai Mehta (1957) urged a simultaneous three-tier Gram–Samiti–Zila scheme (1→b). Ashok Mehta (1977–78) proposed replacing that with a two-tier Mandal–Zila structure (2→a). Sarkaria recommended charging the Inter-State Council with duties under clauses (b) and (c) of Article 263 (3→c). Punchhi was the later Centre–State relations commission whose recommendations the Inter-State Council Standing Committee examined (4→d). Code b a c d is therefore correct—option A.
You've seen 5 of 5 sample questions
Unlimited practice on Indian Polity comes with the RAS Test Series + Practice pack or Gate Pass.