UPSC 2024 Prelims-GS-I — Previous Year Questions with Answers

Statement-I is incorrect. The atmosphere is heated more by terrestrial (long-wave) radiation than by incoming solar radiation, because the lower atmosphere is largely transparent to short-wave solar radiation but readily absorbs long-wave radiation re-emitted by the Earth's surface. Statement-II is correct: greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, water vapour and methane absorb terrestrial long-wave radiation efficiently, trapping heat in the troposphere. Therefore Statement-I is incorrect while Statement-II is correct, making option (d) the right choice.

Statement-I is correct: the troposphere is roughly 16-18 km thick over the equator but only 8-10 km over the poles. Statement-II correctly explains this: intense equatorial insolation drives strong convectional currents that lift heat and air parcels to greater altitudes, pushing the tropopause higher. At the poles, weak convection and cold dense air keep the troposphere shallow. Both statements are correct and Statement-II provides the causal explanation for Statement-I, so option (a) is right.

All four are products of volcanic eruptions. Pyroclastic debris (bombs, lapilli, tephra) and ash and dust are classic solid ejecta. Volcanic gases include large quantities of sulphur compounds (sulphur dioxide, hydrogen sulphide) that contribute to acid rain, and nitrogen compounds (molecular nitrogen, nitrogen oxides) released from magmatic degassing. Hence pyroclastics, ash, nitrogen and sulphur compounds are all volcanic products, making option (d) correct.

Both inferences are wrong. In January (northern winter) isotherms over the northern hemisphere bend equatorward (southward) over continents because land cools rapidly, and poleward (northward) over oceans which retain heat. So statement 1 inverts the pattern. Statement 2 is also wrong: the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm currents, not cold, and they keep the North Atlantic warmer, causing isotherms to bend northward. Since the reasoning given is incorrect, neither statement is a valid inference, so option (d) is correct.

Cote d'Ivoire and Ghana are by far the world's two largest cocoa producers, together accounting for roughly 60 per cent of global cocoa bean output. Both West African nations have humid tropical climates ideal for Theobroma cacao cultivation. Algeria and Morocco are arid Mediterranean countries, Botswana and Namibia are dryland economies, while Madagascar and Mozambique produce only modest cocoa volumes. Therefore option (c) is the correct pairing.

Downstream of Prayagraj (Allahabad), the Ganga is joined from the north by Himalayan tributaries in this west-to-east order: the Gomati joins near Saidpur (Ghazipur), then the Ghaghara meets it near Chhapra, the Gandak joins near Hajipur opposite Patna, and finally the Kosi joins in northern Bihar near Kursela. Hence the correct sequence from west to east is Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi, matching option (b).

Statement-II and Statement-III are both factually correct: rainwater dissolves atmospheric carbon dioxide forming weak carbonic acid, and it also contains dissolved atmospheric oxygen. However, only Statement-II directly explains weathering: dissolved carbon dioxide drives carbonation, the chemical weathering of carbonate rocks like limestone. Dissolved oxygen drives oxidation of iron-bearing minerals, which is also a weathering mechanism. Both actually contribute, so the UPSC official key marks option (b) - both II and III correct, and only one (II) primarily explains rainfall-driven weathering of common rocks.

The North Sea is bordered by the United Kingdom, Norway, Denmark, Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium and France. Of the listed countries, Germany and Norway have North Sea coastlines. Finland borders the Baltic Sea and Gulf of Bothnia, not the North Sea. Russia's western coast touches the Baltic, Barents and Black seas but not the North Sea. Hence only two of the four listed countries border the North Sea, making option (b) correct.

Only one row matches. Dhuandhar Falls lies on the Narmada at Bhedaghat in the Jabalpur region, which is part of the Vindhyan/Mahakaushal belt, not Malwa, so row 1 is wrong. Hundru Falls is on the Subarnarekha river in the Chota Nagpur plateau of Jharkhand - row 2 is correctly matched. Gersoppa (Jog) Falls is on the Sharavati river in the Western Ghats, not the Netravati, so row 3 is wrong. Therefore only one pair matches, making option (a) correct.

Donyi Polo Airport at Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh, inaugurated 2022) and Kushinagar International Airport in Uttar Pradesh (inaugurated 2021) were both built as greenfield projects on virgin sites. Vijayawada International Airport at Gannavaram, by contrast, was upgraded from an existing airfield rather than constructed afresh, so it is a brownfield expansion. Hence only Donyi Polo and Kushinagar qualify as recent greenfield projects, making option (a) correct.

Statement 1 is correct: water vapour content in the atmosphere decreases sharply with altitude because most moisture is concentrated in the lower troposphere where evaporation occurs and temperatures permit gaseous water. Statement 2 is incorrect: water vapour percentage is maximum near the equator (warm tropical regions where evaporation is intense) and minimum at the poles, where cold air holds very little moisture. So only statement 1 is right, making option (a) correct.

Low annual and diurnal temperature ranges, year-round precipitation of 50-250 cm, and moderate maritime conditions describe the Marine West Coast (cool temperate oceanic) climate found on the western margins of continents in mid-latitudes such as north-west Europe, Pacific North America, southern Chile and New Zealand. Equatorial climate has higher rainfall (>200 cm) and uniformly hot temperatures. China-type and humid subtropical climates have much larger annual temperature ranges and pronounced summer rainfall. Hence option (d) fits.

The Coriolis force is given by F = 2 m v omega sin(phi), where v is wind velocity and phi is latitude. So statement 1 is correct - the force increases linearly with wind velocity. Statement 2 is also correct - sin(phi) equals 1 at the poles, making the Coriolis force maximum, and 0 at the equator, where it vanishes. Therefore both statements correctly describe the Coriolis force, making option (c) right.

On 21 June (summer solstice), the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer and the Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards it. The equator always experiences exactly 12 hours of daylight, so it does not exceed 12 hours. The Tropic of Cancer (north) and the Arctic Circle have days longer than 12 hours - the Arctic Circle in fact experiences 24-hour daylight. The Tropic of Capricorn (south) has the shortest day, less than 12 hours. Hence statements 2 and 4 qualify, making option (d) correct.

The Cuvette Centrale peatlands of the Congo Basin, straddling the Republic of Congo and the Democratic Republic of Congo, form the world's largest tropical peatland. They cover roughly 145,000 sq km and store about 30 billion tonnes of carbon, equivalent to roughly three years of global fossil-fuel emissions. Their drainage or destruction would release enormous carbon stocks. The Amazon, Kikori (Papua New Guinea) and Rio de la Plata basins do not host peatlands of comparable scale, so option (b) is correct.

All three statements are correct. PFAS (forever chemicals) are detected widely in drinking water sources, food crops, and food packaging such as grease-proof paper, confirming statement 1. Their carbon-fluorine bonds are extremely stable, so they do not readily biodegrade, confirming statement 2. PFAS are lipophilic and persistent, accumulating in animal tissues and biomagnifying up the food chain, confirming statement 3. Therefore statements 1, 2 and 3 are all right, making option (d) correct.

Parasitoids lay eggs in or on a host that is eventually killed. Carabid (ground) beetles include parasitoid species. Many flies (Tachinidae, Bombyliidae) are well-known parasitoids. Wasps include the largest group of parasitoids (Ichneumonidae, Braconidae). Some termite-attacking species exist but parasitoid termites are not recognised; however, parasitoids of termites do exist within the listed families. Centipedes are predators, not parasitoids. The UPSC official key recognises four of the five (excluding centipedes), making option (c) correct.

All three plants belong to the Fabaceae (Leguminosae or pea) family. Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea), horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum) and soybean (Glycine max) are all leguminous nitrogen-fixing crops with characteristic pod fruits and root nodules harbouring Rhizobium bacteria. Hence option (c), all three, is correct.

Statement-I is incorrect. The Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus medius) was earlier listed in Schedule V (vermin) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972, but following the 2022 amendment Schedule V was abolished and the species is no longer categorised as vermin; in any case the contemporary categorisation places it under protected schedules, not vermin. Statement-II is also incorrect: the Indian Flying Fox is a frugivorous bat that feeds on fruit, nectar and flowers, not on blood. Hence only Statement-II being mis-stated makes option (d) the official key, treating Statement-I as incorrect.

Cicadas, froghoppers (spittlebugs) and pond skaters (water striders) are all true bugs belonging to the order Hemiptera within class Insecta. Cicadas and froghoppers are sap-sucking land insects, while pond skaters are aquatic surface-dwelling insects. None are birds, fish or reptiles. Hence option (c), insects, is correct.

Statement-I is correct: discarded chewing gum contributes significantly to litter and microplastic pollution because it does not biodegrade easily. Statement-II is also correct: most commercial chewing gums use synthetic polymers such as polyisobutylene, polyethylene or polyvinyl acetate as the gum base, which are essentially plastics. The plastic gum base is the very reason the gums persist in the environment, so Statement-II provides the causal explanation for Statement-I. Therefore option (a) is correct.

None of the pairs match. Indri is a lemur endemic to Madagascar, not Brazil. Elk are native to North America, Europe and parts of Asia, not Indonesia. Bonobo apes live only in the forests of the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar. So all three pairings are wrong, making option (d) correct.

Statement 1 is wrong: the World Toilet Organization is a non-profit founded by Jack Sim in Singapore in 2001, not a United Nations agency (UN later adopted World Toilet Day in 2013). Statement 2 is correct: the World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are all flagship initiatives of this NGO. Statement 3 is wrong: the organisation primarily advocates, trains and raises awareness; it does not grant funds to states. Hence only statement 2 is right, making option (a) correct.

Statement 1 is correct: lions breed throughout the year with no fixed mating season. Statement 2 is correct: cheetahs cannot roar because their hyoid bone is rigid; they instead chirp, purr and growl, unlike lions, tigers, leopards and jaguars. Statement 3 is incorrect: male leopards do scent-mark their territories using urine, faeces and scrapes, just like other big cats. So only statements 1 and 2 are right, making option (a) correct.

100 Million Farmers is a World Economic Forum platform launched to accelerate the transition of food and water systems towards net-zero, nature-positive outcomes while building farmer resilience and livelihoods. It convenes governments, agribusinesses and producer organisations to scale regenerative agriculture for 100 million smallholders by 2030. The other options describe organic-husbandry networks, blockchain fertiliser trading, and FPO/agribusiness market access, none of which match this platform's stated mission. Hence option (a) is correct.

Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) are small-scale, decentralised power generation or storage units located close to the point of consumption. Battery storage systems, biomass generators, fuel cells and rooftop solar photovoltaic units all qualify because they sit on the distribution network and can feed power locally or provide flexibility services. Hence all four are DERs, making option (d) correct.

The fig tree (Ficus species) shows an obligate mutualism with fig wasps (family Agaonidae). Each fig species is pollinated by one or a small number of specific wasp species; the female wasp enters the fig's enclosed inflorescence (syconium), pollinates the flowers and lays eggs. Without the wasp, figs cannot set seed; without the fig, the wasp cannot complete its life cycle. Mahua, sandalwood and silk cotton are pollinated by bats, bees or generalist insects. Hence option (a) is correct.

All three groups contain poisonous species. Several butterflies such as the monarch (Danaus plexippus) and Indian common crow sequester toxic alkaloids from larval host plants. Many fish species are poisonous, notably puffer fish (tetrodotoxin), boxfish and certain reef fish. Numerous frogs are poisonous, with poison-dart frogs of Central and South America being classic examples carrying alkaloid skin toxins. Hence option (c), all three, is correct.

Only Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is native to India, being endemic to the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh. Cashew (Anacardium occidentale) was brought to India by the Portuguese from Brazil in the 16th century and is native to north-eastern South America. Papaya (Carica papaya) is also native to tropical America (southern Mexico and Central America) and was introduced later. Hence only one of the three is genuinely native, making option (a) correct.

Statement 1 is wrong: RTGs are not fission reactors; they generate electricity from heat produced by the natural radioactive decay of an isotope using thermocouples (Seebeck effect), with no chain reaction or critical mass. Statement 2 is correct: RTGs power deep-space probes such as Voyager, Cassini and the Mars Curiosity and Perseverance rovers where solar power is impractical. Statement 3 is correct: Plutonium-238, the standard RTG fuel, is produced as a by-product of weapons-related plutonium and neptunium chemistry. Hence option (b) is right.

Statement-I is incorrect: giant stars are far more luminous and burn through their nuclear fuel much faster than dwarf stars, so they have shorter lifespans (millions of years) compared with dwarf stars such as red dwarfs which can live for tens of billions of years. Statement-II is correct: giant stars do indeed have higher core temperatures, pressures and rates of nuclear fusion, which is precisely why they consume fuel rapidly and live shorter lives. Hence option (d) is correct.

Nitric oxide (NO) is a signalling molecule synthesised in the human body from L-arginine by the enzyme nitric oxide synthase. It diffuses into vascular smooth muscle, activates guanylate cyclase, raises cyclic GMP and causes smooth-muscle relaxation, leading to vasodilation and increased blood flow - the basis for nitroglycerin therapy and the action of drugs like sildenafil. Nitrous oxide is an anaesthetic, while nitrogen dioxide and nitrogen pentoxide are pollutant gases, not endogenous signalling molecules. Hence option (a) is correct.

Radar (Radio Detection and Ranging) can be applied to all three activities. Millimetre-wave and terahertz scanners at airports use radar-like techniques to detect concealed narcotics and other contraband on passengers. Weather radars track precipitation by detecting backscatter from rain, snow and hail droplets. Wildlife biologists use radar (including marine and weather radar) to study bird and bat migration paths. Hence radars can be used in all three, making option (c) correct.

None of the listed aircraft are fifth-generation fighters. The Rafale is a French 4.5-generation multirole fighter. The MiG-29 is a Soviet-era fourth-generation air-superiority fighter. India's Tejas Mk-1 (LCA) is a fourth-generation light fighter; even the planned Tejas Mk-2 is 4.5-generation. True fifth-generation fighters incorporate stealth, supercruise, advanced sensor fusion and internal weapon bays - examples include the F-22, F-35, Su-57 and J-20. Hence option (d), none, is correct.

Hydrogels - cross-linked hydrophilic polymer networks - are used in all three contexts. They serve as matrices for controlled drug delivery, releasing pharmaceuticals at tunable rates. Hydrogel-based desiccant cooling and sorption systems are being explored in mobile and building air-conditioning applications. Hydrogels also feature in industrial lubricant formulations and as boundary lubricants in tribology research. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are all valid, making option (d) correct.

Hydrogen Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles combine hydrogen fuel with atmospheric oxygen in a proton-exchange-membrane fuel cell to generate electricity, with the overall reaction 2H2 + O2 -> 2H2O. The only tail-pipe emission is therefore water vapour (with some condensed water), making such vehicles zero-emission at the point of use for greenhouse gases and pollutants. Hydrogen peroxide, hydronium ions and oxygen are not exhaust products. Hence option (d) is correct.

Pumped-storage hydropower (PSH) is a long-duration grid-scale energy storage technology. During periods of surplus electricity (off-peak or excess renewables), water is pumped from a lower reservoir to an upper one; during peak demand the water is released back through turbines to generate power. PSH currently provides the bulk of the world's installed energy-storage capacity. It is unrelated to terraced-field irrigation, lift irrigation of cereals or rainwater harvesting. Hence option (c) is correct.

Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) combine biological treatment using activated sludge with membrane filtration (microfiltration or ultrafiltration) to treat wastewater. They produce high-quality effluent suitable for reuse, with smaller footprints and better solids separation than conventional clarifiers. MBRs are widely used in municipal and industrial wastewater treatment plants. They are not used for assisted reproduction, drug nanodelivery or vaccine production technologies. Hence option (d) is correct.

Collateralised Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO) is a money-market instrument developed by the Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL) for short-term collateralised borrowing and lending, mainly used by entities not eligible for the inter-bank call money market. CBLOs were used for tenors of one day to one year, secured against eligible securities. They were a money-market product, not a bond, forex or stock-market instrument. (CBLO has since been replaced by Tri-Party Repo, but remains a money-market instrument.) Hence option (c) is correct.

Total fertility rate (TFR) is defined as the average number of live births a woman would have over her lifetime if she experienced the prevailing age-specific fertility rates throughout her reproductive years (typically 15-49). It is expressed per woman, not per couple or per 1,000 population. Birth rate per 1,000 is the crude birth rate, and birth rate minus death rate is the natural growth rate. Hence option (d) is the precise demographic definition.

Statement 1 is wrong: the RBI's Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is available only to scheduled commercial banks (and primary dealers), not to NBFCs. Statement 2 is correct: Foreign Institutional Investors (now Foreign Portfolio Investors) can invest in Government Securities within prescribed limits. Statement 3 is correct: SEBI permits stock exchanges to operate dedicated debt-trading platforms (NSE and BSE both run such segments). Hence statements 2 and 3 are right, making option (d) correct.

All three categories can trade in corporate bonds and government securities in India. Insurance companies invest substantially in both instruments under IRDAI guidelines. Pension funds, including those regulated by PFRDA and EPFO, also hold and trade in corporate bonds and G-Secs. Retail investors can purchase G-Secs through the RBI Retail Direct platform and corporate bonds through stock exchanges or non-competitive bidding. Hence all three are eligible, making option (d) correct.

A financial instrument is a contract giving rise to a financial asset for one party and a financial liability or equity for another. ETFs are financial instruments (units representing a basket of securities). Currency swaps are derivative financial instruments contracting exchange of cash flows in different currencies. Motor vehicles are physical/real assets, not financial instruments. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are financial instruments, making option (d) correct.

Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) can be produced from a wide variety of feedstocks. Agricultural residues (straw, husks), corn grain (used in alcohol-to-jet pathways), wastewater treatment sludge (via hydrothermal liquefaction or biogas-derived synthesis), and wood mill waste (forestry residues for Fischer-Tropsch processes) are all approved feedstocks under ASTM D7566 and CORSIA-eligible pathways. Hence all four can serve as SAF feedstock, making option (c) correct.

The metaverse is the term used for an interoperable network of persistent three-dimensional virtual worlds accessible simultaneously by millions of users, typically via virtual or augmented reality, where users can own, trade and exert property rights over virtual items, often using blockchain-based tokens. Big data analytics, cryptography and virtual matrix do not capture this combination of immersive 3D worlds, multi-user interoperability and digital property rights. Hence option (c) is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: the RBI prescribes a minimum initial capital requirement (currently Rs 500 crore) for wholly owned banking subsidiaries (WOS) of foreign banks operating in India. Statement 2 is correct: at least 50 per cent of the directors on the board of such a WOS must be Indian nationals as per RBI guidelines. Hence only statement 2 is right, making option (b) correct.

Statement 1 is correct: the Companies (CSR Policy) Rules explicitly exclude activities benefitting only the company's employees and their families, and any expenditure that directly benefits the company itself, from being counted as CSR. Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 135 of the Companies Act mandates eligible companies to spend at least 2 per cent of their average net profits of the preceding three years on CSR activities, with statutory consequences for non-compliance. Hence only statement 1 is right, making option (a) correct.

Statement-I is incorrect: even in a US debt default scenario, holders of US Treasury Bonds retain a legal claim to payment; default merely means delayed or restructured payment, not extinguishment of claims. Holders can still seek payment as creditors. Statement-II is correct: US Government debt is not backed by hard collateral; it is backed by the 'full faith and credit' of the US Government - its taxing power and willingness to pay - which is essentially sovereign creditworthiness. Hence option (d) is correct.

Statement-I is correct: in syndicated lending several lenders jointly provide a loan to a borrower under a common agreement, allowing each lender to take only a fraction of the total exposure and thereby spreading the default risk across the syndicate. Statement-II is incorrect: a syndicated loan can be structured either as a fixed-amount term loan or as a revolving credit facility (a syndicated credit line); both are common, so claiming it cannot be a credit line is wrong. Hence option (c) is correct.

The Digital Rupee (e₹) is India's CBDC issued by RBI. Retail e₹-R was launched as pilot on December 1, 2022. Wholesale e₹-W was launched on November 1, 2022. Unlike cryptocurrency, it is legal tender backed by the central bank.

Shakyamuni (sage of the Shakya clan) and Tathagata (the one who has thus come/gone) are well-known epithets of Gautama Buddha used widely in Buddhist canonical texts. Nayaputta (or Nataputta), however, is an epithet of Mahavira (Vardhamana), the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism, referring to his clan name Jnatrika/Nata - it is not a Buddha epithet. Hence only statements 2 and 3 apply to the Buddha, making option (b) correct.

Chandraketugarh is in West Bengal (not Odisha), though it was indeed an early historic trading site, so row 1 is wrongly matched on state. Inamgaon in Maharashtra is a well-known Chalcolithic site of the Jorwe culture - row 2 is correct. Mangadu in Kerala is a Megalithic site with menhirs and dolmens - row 3 is correct. Salihundam in Andhra Pradesh is a Buddhist site famous for stupas and monastic remains rather than rock-cut cave shrines - row 4 is wrongly described. Hence rows 2 and 3 match, making option (b) correct.

Narasimha Saluva, the founder of the Saluva dynasty of the Vijayanagara Empire (ruled c. 1485-1491), granted permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal on the Karnataka coast. Krishnadevaraya was a later Tuluva ruler (1509-1529) who continued cordial relations with the Portuguese but did not authorise the original Bhatkal fort. Muhammad Shah III was a Bahmani sultan, and Yusuf Adil Shah founded the Bijapur Sultanate. Hence option (b) is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Ryotwari Settlement (introduced by Thomas Munro and Captain Read in Madras and Bombay presidencies, not Cornwallis) made each peasant directly responsible for revenue and did NOT exempt them during bad harvests; rigid collection often caused distress. Cornwallis was associated with the Permanent Settlement, not Ryotwari. Statement 2 is correct: under Cornwallis's Permanent Settlement (1793) in Bengal, the Sunset Clause meant zamindars who failed to pay revenue by the fixed date would forfeit their zamindari at auction. Hence only statement 2 is right, making option (b) correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Upanishads contain numerous parables and allegorical dialogues - the conversation of Yajnavalkya and Maitreyi, the story of Nachiketa and Yama in the Katha Upanishad, and the Shvetaketu-Uddalaka dialogue in the Chandogya Upanishad are well-known examples. Statement 2 is correct: the principal Upanishads were composed roughly between 800 and 300 BCE, while the Puranas in their present form were compiled later, primarily between the 3rd and 10th centuries CE. Hence only statement 2 is right, making option (b) correct.

Statement 1 is correct: India is a member of the International Grains Council (IGC), an inter-governmental forum based in London that oversees the Grains Trade Convention 1995 and works on cooperation in trade of grains, rice and pulses. Statement 2 is incorrect: IGC membership is not a precondition for exporting or importing rice and wheat - many non-member countries actively trade in these grains. Hence only statement 1 is right, making option (a) correct.

Garba dance of Gujarat was inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in December 2023 at the 18th session of the Intergovernmental Committee in Kasane, Botswana. Chhau dance was inscribed in 2010, Durga Puja in Kolkata in 2021, and Kumbh Mela in 2017. Hence Garba is the latest of the four to be added, making option (c) correct.

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the senior-most member of the Constituent Assembly, was elected its temporary or provisional President when the Assembly first convened on 9 December 1946. Two days later, on 11 December 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the permanent President. C. Rajagopalachari, B.R. Ambedkar and T.T. Krishnamachari held other prominent roles, but only Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the provisional Chair. Hence option (d) is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: the Government of India Act 1935 provided for an All-India Federation comprising the British Indian provinces and (on accession) the Princely States, though the federation never materialised because the requisite princes did not accede. Statement 2 is incorrect: defence and foreign affairs were placed under the direct control of the Governor-General (executive councillors not responsible to the federal legislature), not the federal legislature. Hence only statement 1 is right, making option (a) correct.

Bhasa was an early Sanskrit playwright (c. 2nd century BCE - 2nd century CE), a predecessor of Kalidasa. Thirteen plays attributed to him were rediscovered at Trivandrum in 1912, including Madhyama-vyayoga, Svapnavasavadattam, Pratima-nataka and Urubhanga. Kavyalankara is by Bhamaha; Natyashastra is by Bharata Muni; Mahabhashya is by Patanjali. Hence option (c), Madhyama-vyayoga, is correct.

Sanghabhuti was a Kashmiri Buddhist monk who travelled to Chang'an in China at the close of the 4th century CE. He composed a commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya, the monastic disciplinary code of the Sarvastivada school, which he transmitted to Chinese monastic communities. He is not associated with commentaries on Prajnaparamita Sutra (Nagarjuna and others), Visuddhimagga (Buddhaghosa) or Lalitavistara. Hence option (c) is correct.

In September 2023 at the 45th session of the World Heritage Committee in Riyadh, UNESCO inscribed two Indian properties: Santiniketan in West Bengal and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas (Belur, Halebidu and Somanathapura). Rani-ki-Vav at Patan was inscribed in 2014, while the Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya was inscribed in 2002. Hence two of the four were added in 2023, making option (b) correct.

Article 368(1) of the Constitution explicitly provides that Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down therein. All three modes - adding new provisions, varying existing ones, and repealing them - are constitutionally permitted. Hence option (d), 1, 2 and 3, is correct.

Italy, Japan and South Korea are routinely cited in the media for their very low fertility rates, rapidly ageing populations and shrinking working-age cohorts; Japan and South Korea have among the world's lowest TFRs (around 1.2-1.3 and below 0.8 respectively), and Italy's TFR is similarly depressed. Nigeria and South Africa, by contrast, are flagged for high or moderate fertility and youthful populations, not declining ones. Hence option (a), 1, 2 and 4, is correct.

Under Article 110, a Money Bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha with the prior recommendation of the President. Rajya Sabha can only suggest amendments within 14 days; Lok Sabha may or may not accept them.

The standard equivalents are: Brigadier (Army) = Air Commodore (IAF) = Commodore (Navy), so row 1 is wrong (Commander is much junior). Major General = Air Vice Marshal = Rear Admiral, not Vice Admiral, so row 2 is wrong. Major = Squadron Leader = Lieutenant Commander, so row 3 is correctly matched. Lieutenant Colonel = Wing Commander = Commander, not Group Captain/Captain, so row 4 is wrong. Only row 3 matches, making option (d) correct.

After the 2002 amendment to the North Eastern Council Act, the NEC comprises the Governor and the Chief Minister of each constituent state (currently eight north-eastern states), three members nominated by the President of India, and the Union Home Minister, who is the ex-officio Chairman. Therefore all four categories - Governors, Chief Ministers, three Presidential nominees and the Union Home Minister - are members. Hence option (d) is correct.

Four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted in independent India: in 1952 (under the Delimitation Commission Act 1952), in 1963 (Act of 1962), in 1973 (Act of 1972), and in 2002 (Act of 2002). The fourth Commission completed its work in 2008. No further Delimitation Commission had been constituted by December 2023 (the freeze under the 84th Amendment continues until after the first census taken after 2026). Hence option (d), four, is correct.

The Eighth Schedule currently lists 22 languages. Originally, it had 14 languages. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment (1967). Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment (1992). Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment (2003).

Pair 1 is correct: Bharatiya Jana Sangh was founded by Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee in 1951. Pair 2 is wrong: C. Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party (1959), not the Socialist Party (which was led by figures like Acharya Narendra Dev, Jayaprakash Narayan and Ram Manohar Lohia). Pair 3 is correct: Congress for Democracy was founded by Jagjivan Ram in 1977 after he split from the Indira-led Congress. Pair 4 is wrong: Swatantra Party was founded by C. Rajagopalachari, not Acharya Narendra Dev. Hence two pairs match, making option (b) correct.

Inter-State trade and commerce is a Union List subject (Entry 42, List I), not a State subject - option (a) is wrong. Inter-State migration is in the Union List (Entry 81, List I), not the State List - option (b) is wrong. Inter-State quarantine is in the Union List (Entry 81, List I), making option (c) correct. Corporation tax is also a Union List subject (Entry 85, List I), not a State subject - option (d) is wrong. Hence option (c) is the only accurate statement.

In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge Bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held the Right to Privacy to be an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21, also flowing from other Fundamental Rights such as Articles 14 and 19. The primary anchoring article, however, is Article 21. Hence option (d) is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: the Chief of Defence Staff serves as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CDS does NOT exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs; each Service Chief retains operational command of his/her service, while the CDS exercises authority only over tri-service organisations and acts as a coordinator. Statement 3 is correct: the CDS is the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister on tri-service matters. Hence only 1 and 3 are right, making option (d) correct.

Operation Sadbhavana ('Goodwill') is the Indian Army's civic-action programme launched in Jammu and Kashmir and other remote/border regions to address basic developmental needs of local populations - building schools, providing healthcare, vocational training, infrastructure and women's empowerment initiatives. Operation Sankalp relates to maritime security in the Gulf, Operation Maitri was the 2015 Nepal earthquake relief mission, and Operation Madad refers to flood and disaster relief. Hence option (c) is correct.

The longest international land border in the world is the Canada-United States border, stretching about 8,891 km (including the Alaska-Canada border). The Kazakhstan-Russia border, at about 7,644 km, is the second longest. Chile-Argentina is roughly 5,300 km, and the China-India border is about 3,488 km. Hence option (a) is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: the Lok Sabha Ethics Committee was initially constituted as an ad-hoc Committee in 2000 and was made a permanent Standing Committee only later. Statement 2 is correct: as per its rules, a complaint about a Lok Sabha member's unethical conduct can be made only by another Lok Sabha member, accompanied by evidence. Statement 3 is correct: the Committee does not entertain matters that are sub-judice. Hence all three statements are right, making option (d) correct.

Statement 1 is correct: the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Constitution 106th Amendment Act, 2023), which reserves one-third of seats for women in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, will come into effect only after the next delimitation following the first census after the Act's commencement, effectively from the 18th Lok Sabha onwards. Statement 2 is incorrect: the reservation is for 15 years from the commencement of the Act but extendable. Statement 3 is correct: within seats reserved for SCs and STs, one-third are reserved for SC/ST women. Hence 1 and 3 are right, making option (d) correct.

Prohibition is a preventive writ issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction. Unlike certiorari (curative), prohibition is preventive.

Statement 1 is incorrect: under Article 342, it is the President of India (after consultation with the Governor of the state, and Parliament for any modification of the list) who specifies tribes or communities deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to a state - not the Governor. Statement 2 is correct: a community recognised as a Scheduled Tribe in one state need not be a Scheduled Tribe in another, since ST lists are state-specific. Hence only statement 2 is right, making option (b) correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: under Article 112, the Annual Financial Statement is laid before both Houses of Parliament by the President (causing it to be laid), with the Finance Minister presenting it on the President's authority - not on behalf of the Prime Minister. Statement 2 is correct: under Article 113(3), no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India. Hence only statement 2 is right, making option (b) correct.

Subrahmanyam Jaishankar, the Minister of External Affairs, is the author of 'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World' (2020) and 'Why Bharat Matters' (2024), both of which set out his perspective on India's foreign policy and strategic outlook. Bhupender Yadav (Union Minister) co-authored 'The Rise of the BJP'. Nalin Mehta wrote 'The New BJP'. Shashi Tharoor has many books but not these two. Hence option (d) is correct.

Pair 1 is correct: Argentina has been in the news for hyperinflation and one of its worst economic crises, prompting President Milei's drastic reforms. Pair 2 is correct: Sudan has been engulfed in war since April 2023 between the Sudanese Armed Forces (SAF) and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces (RSF). Pair 3 is wrong: Turkey has not rescinded its NATO membership; on the contrary, it agreed to ratify Sweden's NATO accession in 2024. Hence two pairs match, making option (b) correct.

Statement-I is correct: the Suez-Mediterranean (SUMED) pipeline is a major strategic alternative to the Suez Canal for transporting Persian Gulf crude oil and petroleum products to Europe, particularly for Very Large Crude Carriers that cannot transit the canal fully laden. Statement-II is correct: the SUMED pipeline runs across Egypt from Ain Sukhna on the Red Sea (Gulf of Suez) to Sidi Kerir terminal on the Mediterranean near Alexandria, thus connecting the Red Sea with the Mediterranean. Statement-II directly explains why SUMED is strategic for Gulf-to-Europe oil flows, so option (a) is right.

Statement 1 is correct: the Red Sea region is one of the most arid in the world, receiving very little precipitation - typically less than 100 mm annually along its coasts. Statement 2 is correct: no perennial rivers drain into the Red Sea; the surrounding desert lands have only ephemeral wadis, so it receives no significant riverine inflow. Combined with extremely high evaporation, this makes the Red Sea highly saline. Hence both statements are correct, making option (c) right.

According to the US Environmental Protection Agency, the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions in the United States is the burning of fossil fuels (especially coal and oil) at power plants and other industrial facilities. SO2 emissions from electricity generation greatly exceed those from locomotives, ships or metal smelting. Although metal smelting is a notable source, EPA's published source breakdown places fossil-fuelled power plants at the top. Hence option (d) is correct.

Statement-I is correct: the Sahel region (including Burkina Faso, Mali, Niger, Chad and parts of neighbouring states) faces deep instability, jihadist insurgencies, ethnic violence and humanitarian crises. Statement-II is also correct and serves as a major causal factor: in recent years, military coups have occurred in Mali (2020, 2021), Burkina Faso (2022 twice), Niger (2023) and Gabon, undermining democratic institutions and worsening security. Hence Statement-II explains Statement-I, making option (a) correct.

Statement-I is incorrect: India does import apples from the United States; in fact India removed retaliatory tariffs on US apples in 2023 following a WTO settlement, leading to renewed US apple shipments. Statement-II is correct: under the Food Safety and Standards Act 2006 and related rules, Genetically Modified food cannot be imported into India without prior approval from competent authorities such as the GEAC and FSSAI. Hence Statement-I is wrong but Statement-II is correct, making option (d) right.

Under Article 96 of the Constitution, while a resolution for the Speaker's removal is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside over the House. However, the Speaker has the right to speak and otherwise take part in the proceedings, and is entitled to vote in the first instance (though not in the case of a tie). Therefore statement 1 is correct, but statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Hence only statement 1 is right, making option (a) correct.

Statement 1 is correct: a bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. Statement 2 is incorrect: a bill PASSED by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha does NOT lapse on Lok Sabha dissolution; it remains pending. Statement 3 is incorrect: a bill on which the President has notified intention to summon a joint sitting does NOT lapse on Lok Sabha dissolution; it survives for the joint sitting. Hence only statement 1 is right, making option (a) correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: the President prorogues a House on the advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 74; it is not done independently. Statement 2 is correct: prorogation usually follows adjournment sine die, but the President may prorogue even when the House is in session - there is no constitutional bar. Statement 3 is correct: under Article 85(2)(b), the President dissolves the Lok Sabha, normally on the advice of the Council of Ministers, save in exceptional circumstances such as loss of majority. Hence statements 2 and 3 are right, making option (c) correct.

Statement-I is correct: the European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act in 2024, aimed at scaling up domestic manufacturing of clean technologies in the EU. Statement-II is incorrect: the EU's binding target for climate neutrality is 2050 (under the European Climate Law), not 2040; while the EU aims to meet a substantial share of clean-tech demand domestically (the Act sets a 40 per cent benchmark by 2030), it does not aim to develop ALL of its own clean technology. Hence Statement-I is right but Statement-II is wrong, making option (c) correct.

Statement-I is incorrect: Venezuela has continued to suffer prolonged economic crisis, hyperinflation and one of the largest emigration waves in modern Latin American history - over seven million Venezuelans have left the country. There has been no rapid recovery or successful prevention of emigration. Statement-II is correct: Venezuela holds the world's largest proven crude oil reserves, primarily in the Orinoco Belt. Hence Statement-I is wrong but Statement-II is correct, making option (d) right.

Statement 1 is correct: the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) is a 100 per cent centrally funded scheme. Statement 2 is correct: cadastral maps are being digitised under the programme, with mosaicking and integration into the Bhulekh portal. Statement 3 is correct: a Records of Rights transliteration initiative has been launched to convert RoRs from local languages into the 22 scheduled languages of the Constitution to facilitate inter-state property transactions. Hence all three statements are right, making option (d) correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: PMSMA guarantees a free, fixed-day, comprehensive and quality antenatal check-up only on the 9th of every month to pregnant women in their second and third trimesters - it does not include six months of post-delivery health care. Statement 2 is correct: the scheme actively encourages private sector specialists (gynaecologists, radiologists) to volunteer their services pro bono at nearby government health facilities to bridge the specialist gap. Hence only statement 2 is right, making option (b) correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: the entry age group for PM-SYM enrolment is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40. Statement 2 is correct: contributions are age-specific, ranging from Rs 55 per month at age 18 to Rs 200 per month at age 40, with matching contribution from the Government. Statement 3 is correct: each subscriber gets a minimum assured pension of Rs 3,000 per month after attaining 60 years. Statement 4 is incorrect: family pension on the subscriber's death is payable only to the spouse at 50 per cent of the pension; unmarried daughters are not covered. Hence only 2 and 3 are right, making option (b) correct.