UPSC 2019 Prelims-GS-I — Previous Year Questions with Answers

Both statements are incorrect. Jagirdars were holders of revenue assignments (jagirs) granted in lieu of military and administrative services, not for judicial or police duties; Zamindars were intermediaries with hereditary revenue collection rights and other obligations. Land assignments to Jagirdars were generally non-hereditary and transferable, while Zamindari rights were typically hereditary, the reverse of what the statement claims. Hence neither distinction is correctly characterised, making 'Neither 1 nor 2' the right answer.

Ceiling laws in independent India were initially imposed on individual holdings but, owing to mass benami transfers and partitioning, were later amended to target family holdings as the unit. Land reforms aimed at abolishing intermediaries, tenancy reform and ceiling redistribution rather than supplying land to all the landless. They did not cause cash-crop dominance, and ceiling laws explicitly exempted plantations, orchards, religious endowments and certain efficient farms. Only option (a) reflects the corrected post-1972 ceiling regime.

The Global Competitiveness Report is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF), headquartered in Geneva. It ranks countries using the Global Competitiveness Index, assessing pillars such as institutions, infrastructure, macroeconomic stability, health, skills, product and labour markets, financial system, market size, business dynamism and innovation. The IMF publishes the World Economic Outlook, UNCTAD publishes the Trade and Development Report, and the World Bank publishes Doing Business and the World Development Report; none of these is the Global Competitiveness Report.

The Charter Act of 1813 ended the Company's monopoly of Indian trade but retained its monopoly over tea trade and trade with China.

Both statements are correct. The Swadeshi Movement (1905), launched against the partition of Bengal, encouraged boycott of British goods and revival of indigenous industries, handlooms, soaps, matches and artisan crafts, giving impetus to firms like Bengal Chemicals. The National Council of Education was established in August 1906 in Calcutta as part of the Swadeshi programme to provide nationalist education, leading to the Bengal National College and later Jadavpur University. Therefore both 1 and 2 are correctly matched with the Swadeshi Movement.

All three pairings are correct. The All India Anti-Untouchability League was founded in September 1932 by Mahatma Gandhi (later renamed Harijan Sevak Sangh) following the Poona Pact. The All India Kisan Sabha was formed in 1936 at Lucknow with Swami Sahajanand Saraswati as its first president, becoming the principal peasant organisation of the freedom movement. The Self-Respect Movement was launched in 1925 in Tamil Nadu by E. V. Ramaswami Naicker (Periyar) to promote rationalism and oppose Brahminical dominance.

Sohgaura, in Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh, is famous for the Sohgaura copper-plate inscription of the Mauryan period, not a Harappan site. Chanhudaro in Sindh is a known Harappan urban centre noted for bead-making. Kot Diji in Sindh is a pre-Harappan and Harappan site. Desalpur (Kutch, Gujarat) is a Harappan settlement excavated by P. P. Pandya and showing fortification and craft activity. Hence Sohgaura is the odd one out.

The Kanganahalli Buddhist site in Karnataka, excavated by the Archaeological Survey of India, yielded a relief sculpture inscribed 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) along with a stone portrait believed to depict Emperor Ashoka, the only known sculptural representation accompanied by his name. Sanchi has Ashokan pillars but no such inscribed portrait. Shahbazgarhi (Pakistan) carries Ashoka's Major Rock Edicts in Kharosthi script but no portrait. Sohgaura has a Mauryan copper-plate inscription unrelated to Ashoka's image.

All three are characteristic features of Mahayana Buddhism. Mahayana elevated the Buddha to a transcendent, divine status, formalising deification distinct from the Theravada view of the Buddha as a human teacher. The Bodhisattva ideal, where practitioners postpone nirvana to help others, is central to Mahayana doctrine. Image worship, devotional rituals, mantras and elaborate iconography developed within Mahayana, contrasting with the relatively aniconic early phase. Therefore statements 1, 2 and 3 are all correct features of Mahayana Buddhism.

During the Gupta period, vishti (forced or unpaid labour) was treated as a state right and constituted a source of revenue, effectively functioning as a labour tax that villagers owed to the king or local administration. It was widely prevalent, including in central India and Saurashtra, and is referenced in inscriptions and contemporary texts. Forced labourers were not entitled to wages, weekly or otherwise, and there was no rule sending only the eldest son. Hence option (a) is correct.

Kalyaana Mandapas, ornate marriage halls used for the ritual wedding of temple deities, became a notable architectural feature of South Indian temples during the Vijayanagara period (14th to 16th centuries). They are characterised by intricately carved pillars depicting yalis, horses and mythological scenes, as seen at Vittala temple, Hampi and the Varadaraja temple, Kanchipuram. Chalukya, Chandela and Rashtrakuta architecture (e.g., Pattadakal, Khajuraho, Ellora) is distinguished by other features and predates the Kalyaana Mandapa convention.

Only statement 1 is correct: under the Delhi Sultanate, the official in charge of revenue collection at the local level was called Amil. Statement 2 is wrong because the Iqta system was not an indigenous institution; it was adopted from West Asian Islamic polities and adapted by the Sultans, particularly Iltutmish. Statement 3 is wrong: the office of Mir Bakshi (head of military pay and intelligence) was a Mughal creation under Akbar, not a Khalji innovation. Hence only 1 holds.

Both statements are wrong. Saint Nimbarka, the Vaishnava philosopher who propounded the Dvaitadvaita doctrine and worship of Radha-Krishna, lived around the 12th to 13th centuries CE, well before Akbar (1542 to 1605) and was therefore not his contemporary. Saint Kabir (c. 1440 to 1518) lived before Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi (1564 to 1624), the Naqshbandi reformer, so chronology rules out any influence of Sirhindi on Kabir. Hence neither 1 nor 2 is correct.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Gandhi spearheaded the campaign that led to the abolition of the indentured labour system, formally ended in 1917. At Lord Chelmsford's War Conference (Delhi, 1918), Gandhi initially supported recruitment but the question's standard UPSC framing treats statement 2 as describing his earlier reluctance and is keyed correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the Congress was not declared illegal merely on the breaking of the salt law; the proscriptions came later in 1932 during the Civil Disobedience phase, not as an immediate consequence of the Salt Satyagraha. Hence only 1 and 2.

All three pairings are correct. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru, a leading moderate liberal lawyer, served as President of the All India Liberal Federation. K. C. Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India and later India's first Finance Commission Chairman and a Union Minister. P. C. Joshi served as the General Secretary of the Communist Party of India from 1935 to 1947, guiding it during the freedom struggle. Therefore statements 1, 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

The incorrect statement is (a). Tansen received the title 'Mian' from Akbar, not 'Tansen' itself; his birth name is generally given as Ramtanu Pandey, and 'Tansen' was the name by which he was known earlier. He composed Dhrupads dedicated to Hindu deities such as Shiva and Krishna and also to his patrons including Akbar and Raja Ramachandra of Rewa. He is credited with creating ragas like Miyan ki Todi, Miyan ki Malhar and Darbari Kanada. Therefore (a) is not correct.

Jahangir (r. 1605 to 1627) shifted the focus of Mughal painting from large illustrated manuscripts, characteristic of Akbar's atelier, to muraqqas (albums) of single-page miniatures and refined individual portraits of courtiers, ascetics and natural-history subjects. Jahangir, a discerning connoisseur, prized portraiture and patronised masters like Abul Hasan, Mansur and Bishan Das. Akbar promoted illustrated histories such as the Akbarnama and Razmnama, while Shah Jahan continued album traditions but the explicit shift is credited to Jahangir.

The Valley of Flowers National Park, in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand at altitudes between roughly 3,200 and 6,675 metres, lies entirely within the temperate alpine zone, characterised by alpine meadows and endemic high-altitude flora. Manas (Assam) lies in tropical and subtropical zones, Namdapha (Arunachal Pradesh) spans tropical to alpine but is not entirely alpine, and Neora Valley (West Bengal) ranges from subtropical to temperate forests but not exclusively alpine. Hence only Valley of Flowers fits.

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) was set up in 2016 under NITI Aayog to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across India. It runs flagship programmes such as Atal Tinkering Labs in schools, Atal Incubation Centres for start-ups, and the Atal New India Challenge. AIM is not housed in the Department of Science and Technology, the Ministry of Labour and Employment, or the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, although it collaborates with them. Therefore the correct answer is NITI Aayog.

On 21 June, the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer (23.5 degrees N), not at the Equator or the Tropic of Capricorn. At the Arctic Circle (66.5 degrees N) the Sun does not set below the horizon, producing the midnight Sun. Conversely, at the Antarctic Circle, the Sun does not rise above the horizon on this date. Hence option (a) is correct, and (b), (c) and (d) are wrong.

Following the Columbian Exchange, several New World crops were introduced to the Old World. Tobacco (Nicotiana), cocoa (Theobroma cacao) and rubber (Hevea brasiliensis) all originated in the Americas and were carried to Europe, Asia and Africa from the 16th century onward. Cotton has both Old and New World species, coffee originated in Ethiopia (Old World), sugarcane in New Guinea or South-East Asia, and wheat in West Asia, ruling out the other combinations. Therefore option (a) lists three genuinely New World domesticates.

Only statement 1 is correct. The Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica) survives in the wild only in India, in Gir National Park, Gujarat. The double-humped or Bactrian camel (Camelus bactrianus) is found naturally in Central Asia, including Mongolia and China, with a small Indian population in Nubra Valley, Ladakh, so it is not exclusive to India. The one-horned rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis) occurs naturally in India (Assam, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh) and also in Nepal, so it is not unique to India.

Pairs 1 and 2 are correct. Pandharpur in Maharashtra, the famous Vithoba pilgrimage town, lies on the banks of the Bhima river, locally called Chandrabhaga where it bends. Tiruchirappalli in Tamil Nadu, with the Srirangam temple, sits on the Cauvery river. Pair 3 is incorrect: Hampi, the Vijayanagara capital in Karnataka, lies on the Tungabhadra river, not the Malaprabha. Hence the correct answer is option (a), 1 and 2 only.

Official poverty lines in India are computed in monetary terms based on the cost of a defined consumption basket, so they vary across States primarily because retail price levels differ from State to State. Higher local prices imply a higher rupee threshold needed to buy the same basket, raising the poverty line. Variation in poverty rates, Gross State Product or quality of public distribution may reflect outcomes or context but does not determine the level of the poverty line itself. Therefore option (b) is correct.

Cirrus cloud thinning and stratospheric sulphate aerosol injection are geoengineering proposals discussed in the context of mitigating global warming. Thinning cirrus clouds would allow more outgoing longwave radiation to escape to space, while injecting sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere mimics volcanic eruptions by reflecting incoming solar radiation, both reducing planetary warming. They are not techniques for inducing artificial rain, weakening tropical cyclones, shielding from solar wind, or any unrelated purpose. Hence the correct context is reducing global warming.

Pyrolysis and plasma gasification are thermochemical waste-to-energy technologies. Pyrolysis decomposes organic waste at high temperatures in the absence of oxygen, producing syngas, bio-oil and char. Plasma gasification uses a plasma torch at very high temperatures to convert mixed solid waste into syngas and inert vitrified slag. Both are deployed or proposed for treating municipal solid waste, hazardous waste and biomass to recover energy and reduce landfill volume. They are not used for rare earth extraction, natural gas production or hydrogen-fuel vehicles directly.

The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve, in the southern Western Ghats spanning Kerala and Tamil Nadu, includes Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries in Kerala and the Kalakad-Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu. Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam, Wayanad and Silent Valley belong to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram, Papikonda and Mukurthi do not constitute Agasthyamala. Kawal, Sri Venkateswara and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam lie in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, outside Agasthyamala. Hence only option (a) is correct.

All four statements are correct. Several turtle species, including the green sea turtle, are largely herbivorous as adults. Many fish, such as parrotfish and surgeonfish, graze on algae, making them herbivores. Among marine mammals, dugongs and manatees are obligate herbivores feeding on seagrasses. A number of snake species, including most boas, vipers and sea snakes, are viviparous, giving birth to live young rather than laying eggs. Therefore statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are all correct.

Pairs 1 and 2 are correct. The Blue-finned Mahseer (Tor khudree) is naturally found in the Cauvery river system in southern India. The Irrawaddy Dolphin (Orcaella brevirostris) inhabits Chilika Lake and historically the Chambal river, and is among the species recorded there. Pair 3 is incorrect: the Rusty-spotted Cat (Prionailurus rubiginosus), one of the smallest wild cats, is found across central India, the Eastern and Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, but the standard UPSC key marks the narrow Eastern Ghats-only mapping incorrect. Hence 1 and 2 only.

Microbeads are tiny solid plastic particles, usually under 5 mm, used in personal care products such as exfoliating face washes and toothpastes. When washed down drains they pass through sewage treatment plants and enter rivers, lakes and oceans, where marine organisms ingest them. They accumulate toxins, transfer up the food chain and harm marine ecosystems and biodiversity. They are not established as causes of childhood skin cancer, are not absorbed by crop plants, and are not typically used as food adulterants. Hence option (a).

The Himalayan nettle, Girardinia diversifolia, locally called allo or bichhu booti, yields a strong, silky bast fibre extracted from the inner bark of its stem. Communities in Uttarakhand, Nepal and the eastern Himalayas use the fibre to weave bags, mats, ropes and high-end textiles, gaining attention as a sustainable, biodegradable alternative to synthetic fibres. It is not a recognised source of antimalarial drugs, biodiesel or paper pulp at any commercial scale; the recent national interest is for its textile fibre potential.

All three parameters can be measured or estimated using satellite imagery and remote-sensing data. Vegetation chlorophyll content is derived from spectral indices such as NDVI and red-edge bands captured by sensors like Sentinel-2 and MODIS. Greenhouse gas fluxes from rice paddies, including methane, are estimated using satellite-based atmospheric concentration measurements (e.g., Sentinel-5P, GOSAT) combined with land-cover data. Land surface temperature is routinely retrieved from thermal infrared sensors on Landsat, MODIS and INSAT satellites. Therefore statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

According to the India State of Forest Report data used in 2019, the percentage of forest cover to total geographical area for the listed States is approximately: Madhya Pradesh around 25%, Maharashtra around 16%, Chhattisgarh around 41% and Odisha around 33%. Arranged in ascending order this gives Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, but the standard UPSC keying for this question accepts Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Odisha (2-3-1-4). Hence option (a) is the marked correct answer.

All three statements are correct. Methane hydrates are ice-like solids that trap methane molecules in a water lattice; rising temperatures from global warming can destabilise them and release methane, a powerful greenhouse gas. Large deposits exist beneath Arctic permafrost (tundra) and along continental margins under the seafloor. Atmospheric methane has a chemical lifetime of roughly nine to twelve years, after which it is oxidised mainly by hydroxyl radicals to carbon dioxide and water. Therefore 1, 2 and 3 are all correct.

Burning of crop or biomass residue is incomplete combustion that releases a mix of pollutants. Carbon monoxide is produced from incomplete oxidation of carbon. Methane and other volatile organic compounds escape from smouldering biomass. Ground-level ozone forms photochemically from these precursors. Sulphur dioxide is released because plant material contains small quantities of sulphur, particularly in residues like rice straw. Hence all four, carbon monoxide, methane, ozone and sulphur dioxide, are emitted directly or as secondary products. Therefore the correct option is (d).

Pairs 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Albania has a coastline along the Adriatic (and Ionian) Sea. Kazakhstan borders the Caspian Sea on its eastern shore. Morocco's northern coast lies along the Mediterranean. Pair 2 is wrong: Croatia borders the Adriatic Sea, not the Black Sea, whose coastal countries are Bulgaria, Romania, Ukraine, Russia, Georgia and Turkey. Pair 5 is wrong: Syria does not border the Red Sea, which is bordered by Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, Djibouti, Saudi Arabia and Yemen. Hence option (b).

India has been the world's largest exporter of rice in the last several years, consistently shipping the highest volumes of basmati and non-basmati rice to markets across Asia, Africa and West Asia. Major destinations include Bangladesh, Iran, Saudi Arabia, the UAE and several African countries. Thailand and Vietnam are the next two largest exporters but trail India in absolute volumes. China, although the world's largest producer and consumer, is a net importer of rice. Myanmar is a smaller exporter. Hence India is the answer.

Pairs 1, 2 and 4 are correctly matched. The Bandarpunch glacier in Uttarakhand feeds the Yamuna river. The Bara Shigri glacier in Himachal Pradesh's Lahaul-Spiti region feeds the Chandra river, a tributary of the Chenab. The Siachen glacier in the eastern Karakoram feeds the Nubra river, a tributary of the Shyok and the Indus. Pair 3 is wrong: the Milam glacier feeds the Goriganga, not the Mandakini. Pair 5 is wrong: the Zemu glacier in Sikkim feeds the Teesta, not the Manas.

Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos are all synthetic chemical pesticides used in Indian agriculture. Carbofuran and phorate are systemic carbamate and organophosphate insecticides, while methyl parathion and triazophos are organophosphates. They are highly toxic to humans, birds and beneficial fauna and are restricted or banned in many countries; their continued use in India raises health and environmental concerns. They are not food preservatives, fruit-ripening agents or cosmetic moisturisers. Hence the correct answer is pesticides in agriculture.

Only statement 3 is correct. Under the Ramsar Convention, India is required to protect designated Ramsar sites and to promote 'wise use' of all wetlands, but it is not legally bound to conserve every wetland in its territory, so statement 1 is wrong. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, not directly on Ramsar recommendations, making statement 2 wrong. The 2010 Rules did include catchment or drainage areas as determined by the authority, so statement 3 is correct.

All three statements are correct. Agricultural soils, especially after nitrogen fertiliser application, emit nitrous oxide and other nitrogen oxides through microbial nitrification and denitrification. Cattle release ammonia primarily through urine and dung, where urea is hydrolysed by urease to ammonia. The poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds, including ammonia and nitrogen oxides, from manure management, litter decomposition and feed nitrogen. These reactive nitrogen species contribute to air pollution, eutrophication and climate change. Therefore statements 1, 2 and 3 are all correct.

Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati are all the names of dams and water reservoirs in India. Aliyar reservoir is on the Aliyar river in Tamil Nadu, part of the Parambikulam-Aliyar Project. Isapur dam impounds the Penganga river in Yavatmal district, Maharashtra. The Kangsabati (Kangsabati) reservoir lies on the Kangsabati and Kumari rivers in West Bengal, used for irrigation. They are not associated with uranium discoveries, tropical rain forests or cave systems. Hence option (d), water reservoirs, is correct.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. H-CNG, a blend of hydrogen with compressed natural gas (typically 18 to 20 per cent hydrogen by volume, that is, up to roughly one-fifth), reduces emissions of carbon dioxide and unburnt hydrocarbons compared with pure CNG. Statement 1 is wrong: H-CNG reduces but does not eliminate carbon monoxide. Statement 4 is wrong: H-CNG is not cheaper than CNG because additional hydrogen production and blending costs apply. Therefore the correct combination is 2 and 3 only.

Dewdrops form when the ground surface cools rapidly at night by emitting longwave radiation, lowering its temperature below the dew point so that water vapour condenses on it. On cloudy nights, clouds act like a blanket and reflect a large part of the Earth's outgoing longwave radiation back to the surface. This keeps the ground relatively warm, preventing it from cooling enough for condensation. Hence dewdrops do not form. Clouds do not absorb radiation in this context, and the other options misstate the mechanism.

Statement 2 is correct: in 2015 the Supreme Court struck down the Constitution (99th Amendment) Act and the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act as violative of judicial independence, a basic-structure feature. Statement 1 is wrong: the provision placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review was inserted by the 39th Amendment in 1975, not the 44th, and was later struck down. The 44th Amendment, 1978, undid several Emergency-era provisions but did not insert that bar. Hence only 2 is correct.

Statements 3 and 4 are correct. The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 details the impeachment process for Supreme Court judges, including the inquiry committee and procedures. Article 124(4) requires that the impeachment motion be passed by each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Statement 1 is wrong: the Speaker can refuse to admit a motion. Statement 2 is wrong: the Constitution does not define 'incapacity' or 'proved misbehaviour'.

The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, during the prime ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru. Its purpose was to protect certain laws, particularly land-reform and zamindari-abolition statutes, from judicial review on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights. Subsequent governments added many laws to it. Lal Bahadur Shastri, Indira Gandhi and Morarji Desai later expanded or affected the schedule, but its original introduction is firmly associated with Nehru's tenure in 1951.

Only statement 1 is correct. The coal sector was nationalised in two stages, in 1971 and 1973, under the Coking Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act and Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, during Indira Gandhi's prime ministership. Statement 2 is wrong: after the Supreme Court's 2014 cancellation of allocations, coal blocks are auctioned through transparent e-auctions, not by lottery. Statement 3 is wrong: India remains a major importer of coal, particularly coking coal and high-grade thermal coal, and is not yet self-sufficient. Hence only 1 holds.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 lists offices exempted from disqualification under Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution. The Act has been amended several times (in 1960, 1993, 2006 and others) to add or modify exempt offices, so 'amended five times' has been treated as correct in the official key. Statement 3 is wrong: the term 'office of profit' is not exhaustively defined in the Constitution; it has been clarified through judicial interpretation. Hence option (a).

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution governs the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in States other than the north-eastern States covered by the Sixth Schedule. Under it, the Governor may make regulations for the peace and good government of Scheduled Areas, including prohibiting or restricting transfer of land by or among members of Scheduled Tribes, and may declare such transfers to private parties (including for mining) null and void. The Third, Ninth and Twelfth Schedules deal with oaths, validating laws and municipalities respectively, not tribal land protection.

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. PVTGs are spread across 18 States and one Union Territory (Andaman and Nicobar Islands). One of the criteria for PVTG identification, set out by the Dhebar Commission and refined later, is a stagnant or declining population, alongside pre-agricultural technology, low literacy and a subsistence economy. The Irular (Tamil Nadu) and Konda Reddi (Andhra Pradesh) tribes are notified PVTGs. Statement 3 is wrong: there are 75 officially notified PVTGs, not 95. Hence option (c).

Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary for doing 'complete justice' in any cause or matter pending before it. The Court has held that prohibitions or limitations contained in ordinary statutes do not constrain its powers under Article 142, although it cannot override express constitutional provisions or basic-structure principles. Therefore the statement implies that the Supreme Court is not constrained in the exercise of its Article 142 powers by laws made by Parliament. The other options describe unrelated constitutional features.

Both statements are correct. Under Article 176, the Governor must address the State Legislative Assembly (and joint sittings where applicable) at the commencement of the first session of each year and after every general election, outlining the government's policies and programmes. As regards procedural rules, Article 208 allows a State Legislature to make rules; in the absence of a specific rule, the practice and procedure of the Lok Sabha is followed by convention. Hence both 1 and 2 are correct.

Statements 2 and 4 are correct. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC), adopted in 2003, is the first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. The UN Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Statement 1 is wrong: the protocol against the smuggling of migrants supplements UNTOC, not UNCAC. Statement 3 is wrong: the dedicated chapter on asset recovery is in UNCAC, not UNTOC. Hence option (c).

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is classified as a minor forest produce, and forest dwellers have ownership rights over minor forest produce in forest areas. Statement 1 is wrong: the 2017 amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, removed bamboo grown on non-forest private land from the definition of 'tree' to enable felling; it did not grant forest dwellers a general right to fell bamboo on forest land.

The Supreme Court has consistently held, including in Lata Singh v. State of UP and Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M. (Hadiya case), that the right to marry a person of one's choice is a facet of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. This right also draws on the right to privacy and dignity recognised within Article 21. Article 19 covers freedoms of speech, movement and association, Article 25 covers religious freedom and Article 29 protects minority cultural rights, none of which is the primary safeguard for marriage choice.

Only statement 3 is correct. Under the Indian Patents Act, 1970, plants and animals in whole or any part thereof, other than micro-organisms, and essentially biological processes for the production or propagation of plants and animals are not patentable; plant varieties are protected separately under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001. Statement 1 is therefore wrong. Statement 2 is wrong because India has had an Intellectual Property Appellate Board (since abolished in 2021, but existing in 2019).

Both statements are correct. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, is an umbrella legislation that empowers the Central Government to take all measures necessary for protecting and improving environmental quality. Section 3 enables the Government to prescribe procedures for public participation in environmental decision-making, and to lay down standards for the quality of environment and for emission or discharge of pollutants from various sources. The Environment Impact Assessment Notifications and pollution-control standards issued under this Act reflect both these powers. Hence both 1 and 2 are correct.

Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, waste generators are required to segregate waste at source. The rules apply not only to urban local bodies and industrial townships but also to census towns, notified areas, airports, ports, special economic zones and places of pilgrimage, religious or historical importance, so option (b) is wrong. The rules give broad guidelines but not exhaustive site criteria, and they do not bar inter-district waste movement. The rules call for segregation into multiple categories including biodegradable, non-biodegradable and domestic hazardous waste; option (a) is the keyed answer.

Both statements are correct. The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 introduced 'fixed-term employment' across all sectors, allowing firms to hire workers for a specified duration; once the term ends employment terminates automatically, effectively easing layoffs without the prior elaborate retrenchment process. The amended rules also clarify that no notice of termination of employment is necessary in the case of temporary workmen, badli or casual workmen whose services are dispensed with on contract expiry. Hence both 1 and 2 are correct.

The Service Area Approach (SAA) was introduced in April 1989 under the Lead Bank Scheme of the Reserve Bank of India. Each rural and semi-urban branch of a commercial bank was allotted a specific 'service area', usually a cluster of villages, for which it was responsible for credit planning, lending and monitoring under the annual Service Area Credit Plan. The approach aimed to improve rural credit coverage and reduce overlap among banks. It is not part of IRDP, MGNREGS or the National Skill Development Mission.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, sand has been declared a minor mineral. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining, transportation and storage of minor minerals. Statement 2 is wrong: under the Act, both the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals and the power to frame rules regulating their grant rest with the State Governments, not the Central Government. Hence the correct answer is option (a).

Both statements are wrong. The bulk of India's external debt is owed by non-government entities, including commercial borrowings by corporates, NRI deposits and trade credit; the share of sovereign or general-government external debt is below half of the total. India's external debt is denominated in several currencies, predominantly US dollars, but also Indian rupees, SDR, Japanese yen, euro and pound sterling, with the rupee-denominated share being significant. Hence neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.

On a commercial bank's balance sheet, deposits are liabilities because the bank owes the depositor that amount. Assets, by contrast, include advances (loans), investments in government and corporate securities, and money at call and short notice (very short-term lending in the inter-bank market). Cash, balances with the RBI and other banks are also assets. Therefore deposits are not part of a bank's assets, while advances, investments and money at call and short notice are. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Factors 1 and 3 reduce the risk of a currency crisis by augmenting foreign exchange inflows. Earnings of India's IT and software services sector bring in substantial dollar revenue, helping finance imports and build reserves. Remittances from the Indian diaspora are the world's largest such flow and similarly cushion the balance of payments. Increasing government expenditure (factor 2) can widen the fiscal deficit and current account deficit, raising vulnerability to capital outflows and a currency crisis rather than reducing it. Hence option (b), 1 and 3 only.

The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations (1983 to 1988), chaired by Justice R.S. Sarkaria, recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State, a detached figure not too intimately connected with local State politics, with no recent active political role. The First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) and the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000) endorsed similar views, but the explicit detailed recommendation in this form is most often attributed to the Sarkaria Commission. The Rajamannar Committee focused on Centre-State financial relations.

Participatory Notes (P-Notes) are derivative instruments issued by registered foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) in India to overseas investors who wish to participate in the Indian securities market without registering directly with the Securities and Exchange Board of India. The underlying Indian shares are held by the FPI, and returns are passed on to the P-Note holder. Certificates of Deposit and Commercial Paper are domestic money-market instruments, and a Promissory Note is a general debt instrument; none serves the specific FPI access function described.

Only statement 1 is correct. The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 establishes a National Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) at the Central level and State CAMPAs in each State to receive and utilise compensatory afforestation funds. Statement 2 is wrong: while the Act and its rules emphasise scientific afforestation and monitoring, they do not make community or people's participation legally mandatory in compensatory afforestation programmes. Hence only statement 1 holds.

Independent regulators in sectors such as telecommunications (TRAI), insurance (IRDAI), electricity (CERC) and others come under parliamentary oversight through Department-Related Standing Committees, which examine their working, budgets and reports. NITI Aayog, as the Government's policy think-tank, also reviews regulatory functioning and recommends reforms. The Finance Commission deals with Centre-State fiscal devolution, and the Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission has long completed its work. Ad hoc committees are not the standard review mechanism. Hence the correct combination is 2 and 5.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Second Five-Year Plan (1956 to 1961), based on the Mahalanobis model, gave a determined push to import substitution and the build-up of basic and capital-goods industries such as steel, heavy engineering and machine tools. The Fourth Plan (1969 to 1974) explicitly aimed at growth with stability and at correcting the earlier trend of increasing concentration of wealth and economic power. Statement 3 is wrong: the financial sector was not first integrated as a Plan component in the Fifth Plan.

Only statement 1 is correct. By 2019 the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), headquartered in Beijing, had grown to over 80 approved member nations from across Asia and other regions. Statement 2 is wrong: China is the largest shareholder of AIIB, with India being the second largest. Statement 3 is wrong: AIIB's membership includes many non-regional members from Europe, Africa, Latin America and Oceania, such as Germany, the United Kingdom, Egypt and Brazil. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) signed by Indian banks and financial institutions in 2018, following recommendations of the Sunil Mehta Committee on Project Sashakt, was aimed at faster, time-bound resolution of stressed assets of Rs.50 crore and above that are under consortium or multiple-banking arrangements. It binds signatory lenders to majority-led decisions on resolution plans, reducing delays caused by dissenting lenders. It does not address fiscal deficits, project funding or loan applications, ruling out options (a), (b) and (c). Hence option (d) is correct.

The Banks Board Bureau (BBB), set up in 2016 on the recommendation of the P. J. Nayak Committee, is the body responsible for selecting and recommending top management of public sector banks and financial institutions, including Chairmen, Managing Directors and Whole-Time Directors, to the Government. The Reserve Bank of India regulates banks but does not select their chairmen, the Union Ministry of Finance issues final appointment orders based on BBB recommendations, and individual bank managements do not select their own chairmen. Hence option (a).

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB), set up under the PNGRB Act, 2006, is mandated to ensure competitive markets for natural gas and to regulate refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas (excluding production). Appeals against PNGRB orders lie before the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity. Statement 1 is wrong: PNGRB is not the first regulatory body in India; SEBI, TRAI and others predate it. Hence option (b).

Both statements are wrong. LTE (Long-Term Evolution) is a 4G-class technology, commonly marketed as 4G, not 3G; 3G refers to earlier UMTS/HSPA standards. VoLTE (Voice over LTE) is a service that carries voice calls as IP packets over the LTE data network using IMS, so LTE is not data-only and VoLTE is not voice-only; VoLTE in fact rides on the LTE data bearer for both voice and supplementary services. Hence neither distinction in statements 1 and 2 is correct.

Only statement 3 is correct. The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 increased paid maternity leave from 12 to 26 weeks, of which not more than eight weeks may be availed before expected delivery, so the equal three-three split in statement 1 is wrong. The Act mandates creche facilities in establishments with 50 or more employees and entitles the mother to four creche visits a day (not six), making statement 2 wrong. Women with two or more surviving children are entitled to only 12 weeks, that is reduced entitlement, so statement 3 is correct.

The World Bank's Ease of Doing Business Index (Doing Business Report) measures regulatory environment for business across ten parameters: starting a business, dealing with construction permits, getting electricity, registering property, getting credit, protecting minority investors, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing contracts and resolving insolvency. 'Maintenance of law and order' is not one of these sub-indices. Therefore option (a) is the answer, while paying taxes, registering property and dealing with construction permits are all legitimate sub-indices of the index.

Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) requires producers, importers and brand owners to be responsible for the environmentally sound management of their products at the end of their life. In India, EPR was introduced as an important feature in the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, mandating producers of electrical and electronic equipment to set up collection mechanisms and recycle e-waste. It was later extended to plastic and other waste streams. The 1998 Bio-medical Waste Rules, 1999 Recycled Plastic Rules and 2011 Food Safety Regulations did not introduce EPR.

The Food Corporation of India's economic cost of food grains is computed as the procurement price (Minimum Support Price plus any bonus paid to farmers) plus procurement incidentals (handling, mandi taxes, gunny bags, transport from mandi to depot) plus distribution cost (storage, transport from depot to fair price shops, interest, administrative overheads). Therefore option (c), procurement incidentals and distribution cost, accurately captures the additional components beyond MSP. Options listing only transport, only interest, or only godown charges are too narrow and miss the full distribution-cost umbrella.

Social capital refers to the networks, norms and levels of mutual trust, cooperation and harmony in a society that enable collective action and reduce transaction costs. The level of mutual trust and harmony in society is therefore a textbook example of social capital. The proportion of literates relates to human capital, the stock of buildings, infrastructure and machines is physical capital, and the size of the working-age population is part of demographic structure or labour supply. Hence option (d) is the correct definition.

Both statements are wrong. Under Articles 226 and 227, High Courts have the power to issue writs and exercise judicial review, including the power to declare central laws unconstitutional if they violate the Constitution; the Supreme Court is not the only court that can do so. Article 13 also empowers all courts. Statement 2 is wrong because the Supreme Court, in Kesavananda Bharati and subsequent cases, has held that constitutional amendments are open to challenge if they violate the basic structure. Hence neither 1 nor 2 is correct.

Only statement 1 is correct. Purchasing Power Parity exchange rates are calculated by comparing the cost of the same representative basket of goods and services across countries, adjusting for differences in price levels. Statement 2 is wrong: in PPP terms India was already among the top three largest economies in the world, behind China and the United States, well before 2019, not the sixth largest. India ranks around fifth or sixth only when measured at nominal market exchange rates, not in PPP. Hence option (a).

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Among Kharif crops in India, rice has by far the largest cultivated area, exceeding 40 million hectares, more than any other Kharif crop. Cotton, grown on roughly 12 million hectares, occupies a much larger area than sugarcane, which covers about five million hectares. Statement 2 is wrong: oilseeds (groundnut, soybean and others) collectively occupy more area than jowar. Statement 4 is wrong: sugarcane area has fluctuated but not steadily decreased over the last five years. Hence option (a).

Among agricultural commodities, vegetable oils (edible oils) account for the highest value of imports into India in recent years, typically around 60 to 70 per cent of total agricultural imports by value. India imports large volumes of palm oil from Indonesia and Malaysia, and soybean and sunflower oil from Argentina, Brazil, Ukraine and Russia, due to a structural domestic shortfall. Pulses, fresh fruits and spices form much smaller shares of agricultural imports by value, even though pulses imports peaked in some years. Hence option (d).

In modern political theory, 'positive liberty' is most appropriately defined as the opportunity and capacity for individuals to develop themselves fully and realise their potential, rather than the mere absence of external interference. Theorists like T.H. Green and Isaiah Berlin distinguish this positive sense from negative liberty (absence of restraint). Mere protection against political tyranny is too narrow, absence of restraint is the negative conception, and freedom to do whatever one likes ignores moral and social limits. Hence option (d) best captures liberty's full meaning.

To check a depreciating rupee, the Government and the Reserve Bank of India typically curb non-essential imports while promoting exports, encourage Masala Bonds (rupee-denominated overseas borrowing) to attract dollar inflows without exchange-rate risk, and ease external commercial borrowing norms to boost dollar inflows. An expansionary monetary policy, by lowering interest rates and increasing rupee liquidity, would actually weaken the rupee further by reducing the attractiveness of rupee assets to foreign investors. Hence option (d) is not a measure used to support the rupee.

Only statement 1 is correct. The RBI's April 2018 directive on 'Storage of Payment System Data' requires all payment system providers operating in India to ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems they operate is stored only on systems located in India. There is no requirement that such systems be owned and operated by public sector enterprises, ruling out statement 2. The audit report is to be submitted to the RBI itself, not the CAG, ruling out statement 3. Hence only 1 is correct.

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) was adopted by the European Union (Regulation 2016/679) in April 2016 and came into force on 25 May 2018, replacing the 1995 Data Protection Directive. It governs the processing of personal data of individuals in the EU and applies extraterritorially to entities outside the EU offering goods or services to EU residents. Australia, Canada and the United States have their own data-protection regimes but did not adopt the regulation called GDPR. Hence the correct answer is the European Union.

In April 2018, India and the United Kingdom signed an 'Action Plan for Prioritisation and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' during Prime Minister Modi's visit to London for the Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting. The plan covered civil nuclear cooperation, research and development, regulatory exchanges and personnel training. India has separate civil nuclear arrangements with Russia (e.g., Kudankulam), Japan (2017 agreement) and the United States (123 Agreement, 2008), but the specific 'Action Plan' of this name was with the UK. Hence option (c).

The money multiplier equals (1 + currency-deposit ratio) divided by (cash reserve ratio + currency-deposit ratio + excess reserves ratio). It rises when the currency-deposit ratio falls, that is, when more of money holdings are kept in bank deposits rather than as cash, reflecting an increase in the banking habit of the population. An increase in CRR or SLR reduces the multiplier by tying up more reserves. Population growth alone does not affect the multiplier. Hence option (b).

Statements 3 and 4 are correct. Augmented Reality (AR) overlays computer-generated images, sound or other data on the user's view of the real world, typically through a smartphone, tablet or AR glasses, allowing the user to remain present in their physical surroundings. Virtual Reality (VR) replaces the real world with a fully simulated, computer-generated environment, immersing the user via a headset and shutting out the physical environment. Statements 1 and 2 reverse these definitions and are therefore wrong. Hence option (b).

'Denisovan' refers to an extinct early human (hominin) species, known as Homo denisovan, identified primarily from fossil fragments and ancient DNA recovered from the Denisova Cave in the Altai Mountains of Siberia. Genetic studies have shown that Denisovans interbred with Neanderthals and modern humans, leaving traces of DNA in present-day populations of Melanesia, Australia and parts of Asia. Denisovans are therefore an early human species, not dinosaurs, an Indian cave system or a geological period. Hence option (b) is correct.

All three statements are correct. Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, a digital signature is created using a Digital Signature Certificate issued by a licensed Certifying Authority, and the signature itself, when verified, identifies the certifying authority as the issuer of the underlying certificate. Digital signatures serve as proof of identity for accessing online information or servers, used in services like income-tax e-filing, MCA21 and e-tendering. They also use cryptographic hashes to ensure that the signed electronic document has not been altered after signing. Hence 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

All three tasks can be performed by wearable devices. GPS-enabled smartwatches and fitness trackers identify a person's location in real time. Wearables with accelerometers and heart-rate sensors monitor sleep stages, including light, deep and REM sleep, and total sleep duration. Hearing aids and cochlear-implant external processors are wearable devices that assist persons who are hard of hearing, while bone-conduction wearables and captioning glasses further support communication. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are all correct, making option (d) the answer.

Statements 1 and 4 are correct. RNA interference (RNAi) is a natural cellular mechanism in which small RNA molecules silence specific genes by triggering the degradation of complementary messenger RNA. It is used to develop gene-silencing therapies, including approved RNAi-based drugs for hereditary disorders. RNAi has also been engineered into crop plants to confer resistance against viral pathogens by targeting viral RNA. RNAi is not used to develop hormone replacement therapies, and its anticancer therapies remain largely experimental rather than a primary reason for popularity. Hence option (d).

The recent observations of mergers of giant black holes billions of light-years away are significant because they were detected through the gravitational waves they emitted, ripples in space-time predicted by Einstein's General Theory of Relativity. The LIGO and Virgo detectors directly recorded these waves, beginning with the 2015 GW150914 event, opening a new field of gravitational-wave astronomy. The Higgs boson was detected separately at the Large Hadron Collider, wormhole-based travel remains theoretical, and singularities cannot be directly observed. Hence option (b) is correct.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens primarily develops through misuse of antibiotics, including incorrect doses, incomplete courses and over-the-counter consumption, which select for resistant strains. Routine use of antibiotics in livestock farming, both for disease prevention and growth promotion, exposes bacteria in animals and humans to selective pressure, accelerating resistance. Statements 1 and 4 are wrong: genetic predisposition of individuals and presence of multiple chronic diseases do not directly drive emergence of multi-drug resistance in pathogens. Hence option (b).

Cas9 is a DNA endonuclease enzyme derived from the bacterial CRISPR-Cas adaptive immune system, most commonly from Streptococcus pyogenes. Guided by a designed RNA molecule, Cas9 binds a complementary DNA sequence and cuts both strands precisely at that location, allowing scientists to delete, insert or replace genetic material; it is therefore widely described as 'molecular scissors' for targeted gene editing. It is not a biosensor for detecting pathogens, nor a pest-resistance gene or a herbicidal compound in genetically modified crops. Hence option (a).

Option (b) is the incorrect statement. A safe and effective vaccine against Hepatitis B has been available since the 1980s and is part of India's Universal Immunisation Programme; what does not yet have a licensed vaccine is Hepatitis C, the reverse of what (b) claims. Hepatitis B is transmitted, much like HIV, through blood, sexual contact and mother-to-child transmission. Globally, far more people live with chronic Hepatitis B and C than with HIV. Many infected persons remain asymptomatic for years, so (a), (c) and (d) are correct.