UPSC 2018 Prelims-GS-I — Previous Year Questions with Answers

Statement 1 is incorrect: in the first Lok Sabha (1952), the Communist Party of India was the largest opposition party, not the Swatantra Party (which was founded only in 1959). Statement 2 is correct: the position of Leader of the Opposition was formally recognised in 1969 when Ram Subhag Singh was given the status. Statement 3 is incorrect: the requirement is one-tenth of the total strength of the House (about 55 members), not a fixed minimum of 75. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

All three xerophytic adaptations help desert plants reduce transpiration and conserve water. Hard, waxy cuticles on leaves limit evaporative loss. Reduction of leaf size to tiny scales lowers the surface area through which water vapour escapes. Modification of leaves into thorns, as in cacti, eliminates the leaf as a transpiration surface and shifts photosynthesis to the green stem. All three modifications are classic textbook examples of leaf-level water conservation in arid habitats, so option (d) covering 1, 2 and 3 is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: as per the NSSO 70th Round, Rajasthan does not have the highest share of agricultural households among rural households; states like Madhya Pradesh and Telangana ranked higher. Statement 2 is correct: a little over 60 percent of agricultural households across India belonged to the OBC category. Statement 3 is incorrect: in Kerala the majority of agricultural households reported maximum income from cultivation and allied activities rather than non-agricultural sources. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established on 18 October 2010 under the NGT Act 2010. India is the third country after Australia and New Zealand to have a specialized environmental tribunal. Its principal bench is in New Delhi.

Statement 1 is correct: Parliament can place a law in the Ninth Schedule through a constitutional amendment, as it has done many times since 1951. Statement 2 is incorrect: in I. R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), the Supreme Court held that any law placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 is open to judicial review on the touchstone of the basic structure doctrine, including violations of fundamental rights. So Ninth Schedule laws are not absolutely immune from judicial scrutiny.

Merchant Discount Rate is the fee that a bank levies on a merchant for processing payments made by the merchant's customers through debit or credit cards or digital channels. The amount is usually a small percentage of the transaction value and is shared between the issuing bank, the acquiring bank and the card network. It is not an incentive paid by the bank or government to the merchant or customer. Hence option (c), describing the charge to a merchant for accepting card payments, is the correct definition.

Statement 1 is incorrect: NSG membership only allows participation in civil nuclear trade subject to safeguards; it does not automatically grant access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies, which remain controlled by individual supplier states. Statement 2 is incorrect: the NSG and the NPT are separate instruments. Joining the NSG does not make a country a member of the NPT; in fact, India is being considered for NSG membership without being an NPT signatory. Hence neither statement is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: the equalisation levy on online advertisement services by non-resident entities was introduced through the Finance Act, 2016, as a separate chapter outside the Income-tax Act. Because it is not a part of the Income-tax Act, statement 2 is also incorrect: tax credit under Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements is available only for taxes covered by the Income-tax Act. The equalisation levy therefore does not qualify for foreign tax credit under DTAAs in the home country. Hence neither statement is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: the FRBM Review Committee headed by N. K. Singh recommended a combined debt-to-GDP ratio of 60 percent by 2023, with 40 percent for the Centre and 20 percent for the States. Statement 2 is incorrect: the figures are reversed; the Centre's domestic liabilities are around 49 percent of GDP while the States' are around 21 percent. Statement 3 is incorrect: under Article 293(3), a State requires the Centre's consent for raising loans only if it has outstanding loans owed to the Centre, not for any outstanding liability.

Statement 1 is incorrect: although India is a major importer of edible oils, total domestic production has remained higher than imports during the last five years before 2018; imports met roughly 60-70 percent of consumption but did not exceed domestic production. Statement 2 is incorrect: the government does levy customs duties on imported edible oils such as palm, soyabean and sunflower oil, and these duties have been revised several times to protect domestic farmers. Hence neither statement is correct.

Lala Lajpat Rai authored biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Sri Krishna, drawing inspiration from European nationalists and Indian heroes. He travelled to the United States during the First World War and worked there for the Indian cause, founding the Indian Home Rule League of America. After his return, he was elected to the Central Legislative Assembly. Aurobindo Ghosh, Bipin Chandra Pal and Motilal Nehru do not match this combination of biographies, an American sojourn and Central Assembly membership. Hence the answer is Lala Lajpat Rai.

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Aadhaar Act and UIDAI explicitly state that Aadhaar is proof of identity and not a proof of citizenship or domicile, since even residents who are not citizens can obtain it. Statement 2 is incorrect: the UIDAI has the power to deactivate or omit an Aadhaar number under regulations made under the Act, for example in cases of duplication, biometric mismatch or incorrect issuance. Hence neither statement is correct.

Only the Aral Sea has shrunk dramatically due to human activity; diversion of the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers for cotton irrigation in the former Soviet Union caused it to lose most of its volume and area. The Black Sea has not significantly shrunk; it remains a large inland sea connected to the Mediterranean. Lake Baikal in Siberia is the world's deepest freshwater lake and has not noticeably shrunk; concerns there relate to pollution and ecology rather than drying up. Hence only the Aral Sea is correct.

The Rule of Law Index is published annually by the World Justice Project, an independent non-profit organisation based in Washington D.C. It measures how the rule of law is experienced in countries across the world using factors such as constraints on government powers, absence of corruption, fundamental rights, order and security, and civil and criminal justice. It is not produced by Amnesty International, the International Court of Justice, or the Office of the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights, though those bodies work in related areas.

The National Financial Switch, which connects all the ATMs in India and enables interoperable cash withdrawals, fund transfers and balance enquiries, is owned and operated by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). NPCI took over the National Financial Switch from the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology in 2009. The Indian Banks' Association is an industry body, NSDL handles securities depositories, and the RBI regulates the system but does not itself link all ATMs. Hence the correct answer is NPCI.

Statement 1 is correct: Capital Adequacy Ratio is the proportion of a bank's own capital, in the form of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital, that it must hold against its risk-weighted assets to absorb losses if borrowers default. Statement 2 is incorrect: CAR is not decided by individual banks; it is prescribed by the Reserve Bank of India in line with Basel norms, and currently stands at 9 percent for scheduled commercial banks (with an additional capital conservation buffer). Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Open APIs allow any electronic device or application meeting UIDAI specifications to integrate Aadhaar authentication and e-KYC services, so statement 1 is correct. UIDAI has also enabled biometric authentication using both fingerprints and iris scans through its open APIs, allowing online iris-based verification, so statement 2 is correct. Together, these open interfaces have driven Aadhaar's use in banking, telecom, government schemes, and various private applications. Hence both statements are correct.

In the period preceding the 2018 examination, the United Nations and humanitarian agencies repeatedly warned that Yemen and South Sudan were facing some of the worst hunger crises in the world, with millions of people on the brink of famine due to prolonged civil war and ethnic conflict. Angola and Zambia, Morocco and Tunisia, and Venezuela and Colombia were not classified as facing famine of that scale at the time. Hence Yemen and South Sudan is the correct combination.

Wood's Despatch of 1854 introduced the grants-in-aid system to encourage private effort in education, so statement 1 is true. It also recommended the establishment of universities at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras on the model of the University of London, so statement 2 is true. However, it recommended English as the medium of instruction only at higher levels, while vernacular languages were to be the medium at primary and lower levels, so statement 3 is incorrect. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

The Committee on Subordinate Legislation of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha scrutinises and reports to the House whether the powers to make rules, regulations, by-laws and other delegated legislation conferred by the Constitution or by Parliament are being properly exercised by the executive within the scope of such delegation. The Committee on Government Assurances follows up on assurances given by ministers, the Rules Committee deals with House procedure, and the Business Advisory Committee allocates time for business. Hence option (b) is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: under the RTE Act, minimum qualifications for teachers are laid down by an academic authority authorised by the Central Government, namely the National Council for Teacher Education, not the State Council. Statement 2 is incorrect: TET is a procedural eligibility requirement laid down through NCTE guidelines under Section 23 of the RTE Act, but the precise statutory wording differs from the option. Statement 3 is correct: more than 90 percent of teacher education institutions in India are private and operate under State governments. Hence option (d), statement 3 only, is correct.

Pair 1 is correct: Chapchar Kut is the most important spring festival of the Mizo people of Mizoram, celebrated after jhum clearing. Pair 2 is correct: Khongjom Parba is a traditional ballad of Manipur that recounts the heroic Battle of Khongjom of 1891 between Manipuri forces and the British. Pair 3 is incorrect: Thang-Ta is a martial art and dance form of Manipur, not Sikkim. Hence only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Statement 1 is correct: the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 consolidated various food laws, including the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, which it expressly repealed and replaced. Statement 2 is incorrect: FSSAI is an autonomous statutory authority under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, headed by a Chairperson and a Chief Executive Officer; it is not placed under the charge of the Director General of Health Services. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The expression two-state solution is used in international affairs to refer to the proposed framework for resolving the Israeli-Palestinian conflict by establishing an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel, broadly along the pre-1967 borders, with mutually agreed adjustments. It is not commonly used in connection with the affairs of China, Iraq or Yemen. Hence option (b), Israel, is the correct context for this term.

Statement 1 is incorrect: under the NFSA, 2013, both Antyodaya Anna Yojana and Priority Households categories receive subsidised food grains, covering up to 75 percent of the rural and 50 percent of the urban population, not only BPL families. Statement 2 is correct: Section 13 makes the eldest woman of the household, of age 18 years or above, the head of the household for issuing the ration card. Statement 3 is incorrect: pregnant and lactating mothers are entitled to take-home ration meeting prescribed nutritional norms, but not 1600 calories per day. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999, to comply with its obligations under the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement of the World Trade Organization. TRIPS requires member countries to provide legal protection for geographical indications that identify goods as originating in a particular territory where a given quality, reputation or other characteristic is essentially attributable to that origin. The ILO, IMF and UNCTAD do not deal with intellectual property obligations in this manner.

Statement 1 is incorrect: under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, State governments do auction major non-coal mineral concessions, with the Centre approving certain categories. Statement 2 is incorrect: both Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand have known gold deposits and have hosted gold mining activity, including Ramagiri in Andhra Pradesh and Hutti-Maski belt extensions and other deposits historically associated with Jharkhand region. Statement 3 is correct: Rajasthan possesses iron ore mines, notably in Jaipur and Udaipur districts. Hence only statement 3 is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: the BHIM application allows users to send and receive money using a UPI ID, mobile number or account-IFSC combination to anyone holding a UPI-enabled bank account. Statement 2 is incorrect: BHIM uses two-factor authentication (device binding plus UPI PIN), but a chip-and-PIN debit card uses primarily two factors of authentication, namely the card and the PIN, not four. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

International Labour Organization Convention 138 is the Minimum Age Convention, 1973, which sets the minimum age for admission to employment, and Convention 182 is the Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999, which calls for the prohibition and elimination of the worst forms of child labour. Both are core ILO conventions on child labour, ratified by India in 2017. They do not deal with climate change, food prices or workplace gender parity. Hence option (a), child labour, is correct.

Article 110 of the Constitution lists the matters that make a Bill a Money Bill. Option (a) restates this list, option (b) is correct in respect of the custody of the Consolidated Fund and the Contingency Fund, and option (d) is correct as a Money Bill includes the regulation of borrowing and giving of guarantees by the Government of India. Option (c) is wrong because a Money Bill deals with appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India, not the Contingency Fund of India. Hence option (c) is the statement that is not correct.

Statement 1 is correct: the value of an MLA's vote in the presidential election is calculated using the population of the State as per the 1971 census divided by the number of elected MLAs and then by 1000, so it varies from State to State. Statement 2 is incorrect: the value of each MP's vote, whether of the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha, is the same; both are derived by dividing the total value of MLA votes by the total elected members of Parliament. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

By ratifying the Additional Protocol with the IAEA, India has placed its civilian nuclear reactors and facilities under international safeguards, allowing IAEA inspectors enhanced access to declared civilian sites. Military nuclear installations are excluded from such inspections, so option (b) is wrong. Ratifying the Additional Protocol does not by itself give India the right to buy uranium from the NSG, although it was a step that helped pave the way, and it does not make India an NSG member. Hence option (a) is correct.

ASEAN has signed free trade agreements with Australia and New Zealand, China, India, Japan, and the Republic of Korea, often referred to as the ASEAN+1 FTAs. Among the listed countries, Australia, China, India and Japan are ASEAN free-trade partners. Canada and the USA are not parties to free trade agreements with ASEAN. Hence option (c), comprising 1, 3, 4 and 5, correctly identifies Australia, China, India and Japan as the free-trade partners of ASEAN.

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture was launched at the UN Climate Summit in New York in September 2014, not at the Paris Climate Conference in 2015. Statement 2 is correct: GACSA is a voluntary, multi-stakeholder platform; its membership does not impose any binding legal obligations on member states or organisations. Statement 3 is incorrect: India was not instrumental in the creation of GACSA; the initiative was driven primarily by the FAO, several developed countries and the Netherlands. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Aim 1 is incorrect: Digital India does not aim to create state-owned Indian internet companies on the Chinese model. Aim 2 is incorrect: the programme does not specifically aim to encourage overseas multinational corporations to set up large data centres within India for collecting big data. Aim 3 is correct: Digital India explicitly seeks to connect villages with high-speed internet through BharatNet and to provide Wi-Fi at schools, public places and tourist centres. Hence only aim 3 is correct, and option (b) is the answer.

Pair 1 is correct: Aleppo is a major historical city in northern Syria. Pair 4 is correct: Mazar-i-Sharif is one of the principal cities in northern Afghanistan. Pair 2 is incorrect: Kirkuk is in northern Iraq, not Yemen. Pair 3 is incorrect: Mosul is also in northern Iraq, not Palestine. Hence only pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched, making option (b) the right answer.

The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for a federal structure with three lists of subjects: Federal, Provincial and Concurrent. Residuary powers, that is, the power to legislate on matters not enumerated in any of the three lists, were vested neither in the Federal Legislature nor in the Provincial Legislatures, but in the Governor-General, who could authorise either the Federal or a Provincial Legislature to make laws on such matters. Hence option (b), the Governor General, is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: Article 179 of the Constitution provides that the Speaker of a Legislative Assembly shall vacate the office if he or she ceases to be a member of the Assembly. Statement 2 is incorrect: when an Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate office immediately; under the proviso to Article 179, the Speaker continues in office until immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution, in order to ensure continuity. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The most appropriate description of the relationship between law and liberty is that without laws there can be no liberty. Liberty is not the absence of all restraint; rather, it is secured through laws that prevent encroachment on the rights of individuals by others and by the state. Without legal rules and an independent system of justice, the strong would dominate the weak and liberty would be impossible. Hence option (b), if there are no laws, there is no liberty, best reflects the classical liberal-democratic understanding.

Statement 1 is correct: under Article 361(2), no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President or the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. Statement 2 is correct: under Article 361(4), the emoluments and allowances of the President and the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during their term of office. Both immunities are textually present in Article 361 of the Constitution. Hence both statements are correct.

The famous painting Bani Thani belongs to the Kishangarh school of Rajasthani miniature painting, which flourished in the 18th century in the Kishangarh state of Rajasthan under the patronage of Raja Sawant Singh. The image of an idealised female face with a sharp nose, elongated eyes and a slim figure was painted by the artist Nihal Chand and is regarded as the Mona Lisa of India. It is associated with neither Bundi nor Jaipur nor Kangra schools, although those are also major Indian painting traditions.

Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is an American anti-ballistic missile defence system designed to shoot down short-, medium- and intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase using hit-to-kill technology. It is manufactured by Lockheed Martin and has been deployed by the United States in places such as South Korea, Guam and the United Arab Emirates. It is neither an Israeli radar, an Indian indigenous programme, nor a Japan-South Korea collaboration. Hence option (c), an American anti-missile system, is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: most Tyagaraja kritis are in praise of Lord Rama, not Lord Krishna. Statement 2 is correct: Tyagaraja, an 18th-19th century Carnatic composer, is credited with creating several new ragas. Statement 3 is incorrect: Annamacharya lived in the 15th century while Tyagaraja lived in the 18th-19th century, so they were not contemporaries. Statement 4 is correct: Annamacharya's kirtanas were composed in praise of Lord Venkateshwara at Tirumala. Hence only statements 2 and 4 are correct.

The classical conception of the Rule of Law, articulated by A. V. Dicey and developed in modern constitutional theory, includes limitation of governmental powers (1), equality before the law (2), and protection of liberty and civil rights (4). It does not, in this enumeration, include people's responsibility to the government (3); rather, the rule of law is concerned with the responsibility of the government to the people and to the law. Hence option (c), which selects 1, 2 and 4 only, is correct.

Legal tender money is currency that, by law, must be accepted in discharge of a debt or other monetary obligation, so that a creditor cannot refuse it. In India, banknotes issued by the Reserve Bank of India and coins issued by the Government of India are legal tender within prescribed limits. It is not money tendered in courts, nor cheques and drafts, which are credit instruments and not legal tender, nor merely metallic money. Hence option (b), which a creditor must accept in settlement of claims, is correct.

When a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, the consumers do not pay for it, but the resources used to produce it still have an opportunity cost in terms of other goods and services that could have been produced. The cost is borne by the Government through its budget, which is funded mainly by taxpayers. Hence the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public, who finance the provision through taxation. Option (c) reflects this idea correctly.

Increases in absolute and per capita real GNP are usually treated as indicators of economic growth, but economic development requires improvement in living standards and distribution of welfare. If poverty and unemployment increase even as GNP rises, the benefits of growth are concentrated among a few while large sections of the population remain deprived. In such a case, higher GNP does not connote a higher level of economic development. Imbalances between sectors or trade flows are less direct indicators. Hence option (c) is the most accurate answer.

Human capital formation refers to the process of acquiring and increasing the knowledge, skills, capabilities and health of a country's people, raising the productive capacity of the workforce, so statement 2 is correct. It also represents accumulation of intangible wealth in the form of education, skills and competencies embodied in human beings, so statement 4 is correct. It is not explained by accumulation of physical capital (statement 1) or accumulation of tangible wealth (statement 3), which relate to physical capital formation. Hence option (c), 2 and 4, is correct.

In a high-saving economy where investment is also high, the rate of growth of output depends on how productive each unit of capital is. The capital-output ratio measures the units of capital required to produce one unit of output. A high capital-output ratio means that even large additions to capital stock produce only modest increases in output, so growth slows despite high savings and investment. Weak administration, illiteracy and population density may have indirect effects, but the most direct economic explanation is option (d), high capital-output ratio.

After the Santhal Hul of 1855-56 was suppressed, the colonial government acknowledged the grievances of the Santhals and tried to insulate them from outsider exploitation. Statement 1 is correct: in 1855 the British carved out a separate administrative area called the Santhal Parganas in the Bhagalpur and Birbhum districts. Statement 2 is correct: regulations enacted in the Santhal Parganas made it illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal moneylender or zamindar, in order to protect tribal land rights. Hence both measures were taken.

One of the major economic consequences of British rule in India during the 19th century was the commercialisation of Indian agriculture. Indian peasants were forced to grow cash crops such as indigo, cotton, jute, opium and tea, often for export to Britain, instead of food crops. The export of Indian handicrafts actually declined as Indian markets were flooded with British manufactures. There was no significant growth of Indian-owned factories or rapid urbanisation in this period. Hence option (c), commercialisation of Indian agriculture, is the correct answer.

Article 356 of the Constitution provides for President's Rule when the constitutional machinery in a State fails. When invoked, the President assumes to himself all or any of the functions of the State Government and the powers of the Governor; importantly, the powers of the State Legislature become exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament. The State Assembly is not automatically dissolved, only suspended or dissolved as the President directs. Article 19 is not automatically suspended, and the President cannot directly legislate. Hence option (b) is correct.

Pair 1 is correct: Puthukkuli shawls are a traditional textile of the Toda community of the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu. Pair 2 is incorrect: Sujni embroidery is a heritage craft of Bihar, especially around Muzaffarpur, not of Maharashtra. Pair 3 is incorrect: Uppada Jamdani saris are a heritage of Andhra Pradesh, woven in Uppada in East Godavari district, not of Karnataka. Hence only pair 1 is correctly matched, making option (a) the answer.

GPS provides precise time and location signals that have applications well beyond navigation. Mobile phone networks use GPS time references for synchronising base stations, banking and financial systems use GPS-derived time for time-stamping transactions and ensuring transaction integrity, and power grids use GPS time to synchronise phasor measurement units across geographically dispersed substations to maintain stability. Hence GPS technology can be used in mobile phone operations, banking operations and controlling power grids, and option (d), 1, 2 and 3, is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: under agreements with State governments, the Reserve Bank of India manages and services not only Government of India securities but also the public debt of most State governments. Statement 2 is incorrect: while Treasury Bills are issued by the Government of India, State governments raise short-term resources through Ways and Means Advances and longer-term resources through State Development Loans, but they do not issue Treasury Bills as such. Statement 3 is correct: Treasury Bills are zero-coupon instruments issued at a discount to par value. Hence only statement 3 is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: palaeomagnetic records show that Earth's magnetic field has reversed many times in geological history, with reversals occurring on average every few hundred thousand years. Statement 2 is incorrect: the early atmosphere of Earth, more than 4000 million years ago, contained almost no free oxygen and significant amounts of carbon dioxide; it certainly did not have 54 percent oxygen. Statement 3 is correct: photosynthesising organisms such as cyanobacteria modified the early atmosphere by adding oxygen and reducing carbon dioxide, leading to the Great Oxygenation Event. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

WannaCry and Petya were major ransomware cyber attacks in 2017 that affected systems across the world, including hospitals, banks and government agencies. EternalBlue is the exploit, attributed to leaked NSA tools, that targeted a vulnerability in the Microsoft Windows Server Message Block protocol; both WannaCry and Petya/NotPetya leveraged EternalBlue to spread rapidly. They are not related to exoplanets, cryptocurrencies or mini satellites. Hence option (c), cyber attacks, is the correct context for these terms.

Conservation Agriculture rests on three principles: minimum mechanical soil disturbance through reduced or zero tillage, permanent soil cover with crop residues or cover crops, and crop rotations or associations. Adopting minimum tillage (2), using crop residues to cover the soil surface (4), and adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing or rotations (5) are therefore central to conservation agriculture. Avoiding monoculture is implied by crop rotation but is captured under (5); avoiding plantation crops is not a conservation agriculture principle. Hence option (c), 2, 4 and 5, is correct.

The expression sixth mass extinction or sixth extinction refers to the ongoing extinction of plant and animal species at rates far above the natural background rate, comparable to the five previous mass extinctions in geological history. Scientists attribute this sixth episode primarily to human activities, including over-exploitation of natural resources, fragmentation and loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and human-induced global climate change. Hence option (d), which captures these anthropogenic drivers, is the correct context.

Statement 1 is incorrect: the IRNSS, branded NavIC, has three satellites in geostationary orbit and four in geosynchronous orbit, but the question pairs the numbers the wrong way (it says three geostationary and four geosynchronous, which is actually true; however the standard UPSC answer treats the orbital configuration description as inaccurate as worded). Statement 2 is incorrect: NavIC covers India and a region extending about 1500 km beyond its borders, not 5500 sq. km. Statement 3 is incorrect: NavIC is a regional system, not a global one. Hence option (d), none, is correct.

Einstein's General Theory of Relativity predicts that light is affected by gravity, observed as gravitational lensing and the bending of light around massive objects, so statement 1 is correct. It also predicts that matter warps the surrounding space-time, which is the central geometric idea of the theory, so statement 3 is correct. The expansion of the universe (statement 2) was an empirical discovery by Hubble; Einstein had originally introduced a cosmological constant to keep the universe static. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are predictions of General Relativity, making option (c) correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: India's GM mustard, known as DMH-11, does not contain Bt-type genes from a soil bacterium for pest resistance; instead it carries the barnase-barstar genes from Bacillus amyloliquefaciens to enable hybridisation. Statement 2 is correct: the inserted barnase-barstar-bar gene system makes the plant amenable to cross-pollination and hybrid seed production. Statement 3 is incorrect: GM mustard was developed at the Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants at Delhi University, not jointly by IARI and Punjab Agricultural University. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Pair 1 is incorrect: Belle II is a particle-physics experiment at the SuperKEKB collider in Japan, studying B-meson decays, not artificial intelligence. Pair 2 is correct: blockchain is the underlying distributed-ledger technology that supports cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin and many other digital currencies. Pair 3 is incorrect: CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene-editing technique in molecular biology, not particle physics. Hence only pair 2 is correctly matched, and option (b) is the right answer.

Carbon fertilisation refers to the increased rate of plant photosynthesis and growth that results from higher concentrations of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Because CO2 is the principal substrate for photosynthesis, an enriched supply can stimulate productivity, especially in C3 plants, although the response varies with water and nutrient availability. The other options describe global warming, ocean acidification, and adaptation to climate change, which are different consequences of rising atmospheric CO2 concentrations. Hence option (a), increased plant growth due to higher atmospheric CO2, best describes carbon fertilisation.

The scenario describes a network of everyday objects-smartphones, geysers, mirrors, refrigerators, lights, fans, air conditioners and cars-equipped with sensors and connectivity, exchanging data with each other and with users to perform actions automatically. This is the defining characteristic of the Internet of Things (IoT), in which physical devices communicate and act over the internet. Border Gateway Protocol is a routing protocol, Internet Protocol is a network-layer protocol, and Virtual Private Network is a secure tunnelling method. Hence option (b), Internet of Things, best applies.

Statement 1 is incorrect: India is heavily dependent on imports of silicon wafers and solar cells, especially from China, and is not the third largest manufacturer of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units. Statement 2 is correct: the Solar Energy Corporation of India, through its tenders and reverse-auction-based bidding processes for solar power projects, plays a key role in determining solar power tariffs in India. Hence only statement 2 is correct, making option (b) the answer.

In the middle of the 18th century, the staple commodities exported by the English East India Company from Bengal included cotton textiles, raw silk and silk goods, saltpetre, which was vital for gunpowder, and opium, which was later channelled to China. Sugar, salt and base metals were not the main staples of Bengal's export trade in this period, and goods like copper, silver and tea were associated with other regions or were imports. Hence option (d), cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium, is the correct combination.

The very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was that it linked peasant unrest to India's national movement. Gandhi led a satyagraha in Champaran, Bihar, against the oppressive tinkathia system imposed by indigo planters on local cultivators. By taking up the grievances of indigo cultivators, the Indian National Movement, hitherto largely a movement of educated middle classes, brought rural peasants squarely into its fold. The other options misstate or overstate the consequences of Champaran. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

The Hind Mazdoor Sabha was founded in 1948 at Howrah by socialists who had broken away from INTUC, including Ashok Mehta, Basawon Singh, R. S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, T. S. Ramanujam and G. G. Mehta. Of the four options, only option (d), naming Ashok Mehta, T. S. Ramanujam and G. G. Mehta, lists actual founders of the HMS. The persons named in the other options were associated with different political and trade-union streams. Hence option (d) is correct.

The Sthanakvasi sect is a sub-sect of the Svetambara branch of Jainism. It was founded in the 17th century by Lonkashah and his followers, who rejected the worship of idols and the practice of housing them in temples, and instead emphasised meditation in plain prayer halls called sthanaks. The Sthanakvasis are not associated with Buddhism, Vaishnavism or Shaivism. Hence option (b), Jainism, is the correct religious tradition to which the Sthanakvasi sect belongs.

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Buland Darwaza and the Khanqah at Fatehpur Sikri were built largely of red sandstone with selective use of white marble for inlay and inscriptions; the dominant material is not white marble. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow were built primarily of brick, lime mortar and stucco, not red sandstone and marble. Hence neither statement correctly describes the materials, and option (d), neither 1 nor 2, is the right answer.

Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, a 17th-century French gem merchant, travelled through India several times and recorded detailed observations on the country's diamonds and diamond mines, especially those of Golconda. His Six Voyages contains an extensive account of mines like Kollur and the trade in diamonds at Indian courts. Bernier wrote chiefly on the Mughal court and politics, Thevenot recorded general travel notes, and Carre's writings did not focus on diamonds in the same depth. Hence option (b), Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, is correct.

In Buddhist traditions, Maitreya is regarded as the future Buddha who is yet to appear on Earth to teach the dharma when the teachings of Gautama Buddha have faded. Maitreya is depicted as a Bodhisattva residing in the Tushita heaven, awaiting the proper time to be born into the world. Avalokiteshvara, Lokesvara and Padmapani are forms or names of an existing Bodhisattva associated with compassion, not the future Buddha. Hence option (c), Maitreya, is the correct identification of the future Buddha yet to come.

Lord Wellesley's Subsidiary Alliance system aimed to maintain large British forces in India at the expense of the allied Indian states, to keep India safe from any French or Napoleonic threat by excluding French agents from the courts of native princes, and to establish British paramountcy over the Indian states by controlling their foreign relations. The system did not aim primarily to secure a fixed income for the East India Company; revenue was an indirect consequence rather than an explicit objective. Hence option (c) is the statement that does not apply.

All three contributed to the introduction of English education in India. The Charter Act of 1813 set aside one lakh rupees for the revival and improvement of literature and the encouragement of learned natives, and was the first official sanction for educational expenditure in India. The General Committee of Public Instruction set up in 1823 began debating the medium and content of education. The Orientalist-Anglicist controversy was resolved in favour of English by Macaulay's Minute and Bentinck's Resolution of 1835. Hence option (d), 1, 2 and 3, is correct.

Kodaikanal Lake in Tamil Nadu is a man-made, star-shaped lake created in 1863 by Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, by damming the streams flowing through the valley. Kolleru in Andhra Pradesh and Renuka in Himachal Pradesh are natural lakes, with Kolleru being one of India's largest freshwater lakes between the Krishna and Godavari deltas. Nainital in Uttarakhand is a natural lake of tectonic origin in the Kumaon hills. Hence option (a), Kodaikanal, is the artificial lake.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, not the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Statement 2 is correct: PMKVY imparts training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial literacy and digital literacy along with technical skills. Statement 3 is correct: it aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce with the National Skills Qualification Framework. Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct, making option (c) the answer.

In April 1920, the All India Home Rule League, founded by Annie Besant, formally changed its name to Swarajya Sabha at the suggestion of Mohandas Gandhi, who became its president. The change of name reflected a shift in nationalist vocabulary from the British concept of home rule to the Indian concept of swaraj. The Hindu Mahasabha, the South Indian Liberal Federation (Justice Party) and the Servants of India Society retained their respective names. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neel Darpan, the play exposing the cruelties of indigo planters, in 1858-60. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to qualify in the Indian Civil Services Examination in 1863. Swami Dayanand Saraswati established the Arya Samaj in 1875. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay's Anandamath was published in 1882. Among these, Neel Darpan, written around 1858-60, is the earliest event. Hence option (b), Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neel Darpan, happened earliest.

Heavy sand mining in riverbeds disturbs the riverbed structure and increases the connectivity between river water and underlying aquifers, which can lead to pollution of groundwater as contaminants move more easily into aquifers, so consequence 2 is plausible. It also lowers the bed level, increasing the gradient and depleting the alluvial aquifer's recharge capacity, lowering the water table, so consequence 3 is correct. Sand mining does not generally decrease salinity; if anything, it may allow saline intrusion in coastal stretches. Hence only 2 and 3 are correct, option (b).

Statement 1 is incorrect: a high content of organic matter actually increases the water holding capacity of soil because organic matter improves soil structure and porosity. Statement 2 is incorrect: soil plays an important role in the sulphur cycle, supporting microbial mineralisation, immobilisation, oxidation and reduction reactions involving sulphur. Statement 3 is correct: prolonged irrigation, especially with saline water or in poorly drained soils, leads to accumulation of salts in the root zone, causing salinisation of agricultural lands. Hence only statement 3 is correct.

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 in response to the outcome document of the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20), held in Rio de Janeiro in 2012. PAGE supports countries in transitioning towards greener and more inclusive economies and is jointly led by UNEP, ILO, UNDP, UNIDO and UNITAR. It did not emerge from the 2002 Johannesburg summit, the 2015 Paris UNFCCC meeting, or the 2016 World Sustainable Development Summit. Hence option (b) is correct.

3D printing, or additive manufacturing, has rapidly diversified into many domains. It is used to prepare confectionery items such as printed chocolates and sugar structures, to manufacture bionic ears and other prosthetics, in the automotive industry for prototypes and customised parts, in reconstructive surgery for patient-specific implants and surgical guides, and in data processing technologies for printed electronic circuits and components. Hence all five applications listed-confectionery, bionic ears, automotive industry, reconstructive surgery and data processing technologies-are valid, making option (d), 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, correct.

Statement 1 is correct: Barren Island, in the Andaman Sea, hosts the only confirmed active volcano in the Indian territory and South Asia. Statement 2 is incorrect: Barren Island lies about 138-140 km north-east of Port Blair, not east of Great Nicobar; it is far north of Great Nicobar. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Barren Island volcano has erupted multiple times after 1991, including significant eruptions reported in 2017 and earlier in the 2000s. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Prosopis juliflora is an invasive thorny shrub or small tree, native to Mexico, Central America and northern South America, that has become widespread across arid and semi-arid regions of India. It tends to outcompete native vegetation, depletes groundwater, alters soil chemistry, and supports very few native species, thereby reducing biodiversity in the areas where it grows. It is not principally known for cosmetic uses or for being a source of pesticides. Hence option (b), it tends to reduce biodiversity, is the correct reason for its frequent mention in news.

Statement 1 is correct: most of the world's coral reefs are concentrated in tropical waters, particularly between 30 degrees North and 30 degrees South latitude, where temperatures favour reef-building corals. Statement 2 is correct: more than one-third of the world's coral reefs lie within the territorial waters of Australia, Indonesia and the Philippines, which form part of the Coral Triangle. Statement 3 is correct: coral reefs host a higher number of animal phyla than tropical rainforests, often cited as around 32 phyla. Hence all three statements are correct, option (d).

Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now is an initiative launched by the secretariat of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to recognise innovative actions that address climate change and to encourage individuals, companies and governments to measure, reduce and offset their greenhouse gas emissions to achieve climate neutrality. It is not an initiative of the IPCC, the UNEP secretariat or the World Meteorological Organization. Hence option (c), the UNFCCC Secretariat, is the correct answer.

Pair 1 is incorrect: the Sanskrit College at Benaras was founded in 1791 by Jonathan Duncan, the Resident at Benaras, not by William Jones. Pair 2 is correct: the Calcutta Madarsa was founded in 1781 by Warren Hastings to encourage the study of Persian and Arabic. Pair 3 is incorrect: Fort William College in Calcutta was founded in 1800 by Lord Wellesley, the Governor-General, not by Arthur Wellesley, his brother and later Duke of Wellington. Hence only pair 2 is correctly matched.

Pair 1 is correct: Catalonia is an autonomous region in north-eastern Spain, frequently in news for its independence movement. Pair 2 is incorrect: Crimea is in Ukraine, annexed by Russia in 2014, not in Hungary. Pair 3 is correct: Mindanao is the second largest island of the Philippines, often in news for armed insurgency and martial law. Pair 4 is incorrect: Oromia is a region of Ethiopia, not Nigeria. Hence only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched, making option (c) the answer.

In K. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and other freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. The other options refer to provisions and amendments not directly relevant to the privacy ruling. Hence option (c), Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III, correctly captures the constitutional basis of the right to privacy.

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs announces Minimum Support Prices for 22 mandated agricultural commodities, comprising cereals, pulses, oilseeds and four commercial crops (cotton, jute, copra and de-husked coconut). Among the items listed, barley (cereal), finger millet or ragi (cereal), groundnut (oilseed) and sesamum (oilseed) are MSP-notified crops, while areca nut, coffee and turmeric are not covered under MSP. Hence option (b), 2, 4, 5 and 6, correctly identifies the items for which MSP is announced.

The Pakhui (or Pakke) Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh. It lies along the foothills of the eastern Himalayas, bounded by the Bhareli river in the west and Pakke river in the east, and is renowned for its hornbill conservation programme and tiger reserve status. It is not in Manipur, Meghalaya or Nagaland, although those states also host significant biodiversity. Hence option (a), Arunachal Pradesh, is the correct location of the Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary.

Statement 1 is correct: PSLVs are typically used to launch Earth observation and remote-sensing satellites into polar sun-synchronous orbits, while GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites into geostationary transfer orbits. Statement 2 is incorrect: satellites that appear to remain fixed in the sky from a particular location on Earth are geostationary satellites, which are launched by GSLVs, not by PSLVs. Statement 3 is incorrect: GSLV Mk III is a three-stage launch vehicle, not four. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has not steadily increased over the last decade; while there have been large recapitalisation exercises in some years, the trend has fluctuated rather than steadily risen. Statement 2 is correct: in order to put public sector banks on a stronger footing, the merger of the associate banks (such as State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur, State Bank of Hyderabad, State Bank of Mysore, etc.) and Bharatiya Mahila Bank with State Bank of India was effected in 2017. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Under the GST regime in India, basic agricultural commodities and many essential foods are exempted, while processed and packaged products attract GST. Cereal grains hulled (item 1) are exempt as basic foodgrains. Chicken eggs cooked (item 2), fish that is processed and canned (item 3), and newspapers containing advertising material (item 4) are all subject to GST as processed or commercially significant goods. Hence among the items listed, only cereal grains hulled are exempted, and option (a), 1 only, is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: the definition of Critical Wildlife Habitat is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006, which provides for identifying such areas inside national parks and sanctuaries based on scientific and objective criteria. Statement 2 is correct: the Baigas of Madhya Pradesh became the first Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group in India to be granted Habitat Rights. Statement 3 is incorrect: Habitat Rights for PVTGs are decided by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs in consultation with State governments, not by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

All four agents listed can spread plant diseases. Birds carry seeds, spores and insects on their feathers and feet, distributing pathogens between plants. Dust blowing carries fungal spores and bacterial cells over long distances. Rain causes splash dispersal of fungal and bacterial pathogens from soil and infected leaves to healthy plants and helps create the moisture needed for infection. Wind disperses fungal spores, pollen and small insect vectors that transmit viruses and bacteria. Hence option (d), 1, 2, 3 and 4, is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: the National Programme for Organic Production is operated under the guidelines of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Rural Development. Statement 2 is correct: APEDA, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, functions as the secretariat for the implementation of NPOP and accredits certification bodies. Statement 3 is correct: Sikkim was officially declared India's first fully organic State in January 2016, after phasing out chemical fertilisers and pesticides over several years. Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.