UPSC 2014 Prelims-GS-I — Previous Year Questions with Answers
100 questions with answer keys and explanations.
- Q1
What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as 'Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative'? 1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. 2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this. 3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this. 4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 1, 2 and 4 only ✓ Correct
- C. 2, 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (SSI) is a method developed by ICRISAT-WWF that uses single-budded chips raised in nurseries and transplanted at wider spacing, drastically lowering seed requirement compared to the conventional method using whole setts. Wider spacing makes drip and sub-surface irrigation highly effective and creates substantial scope for intercropping with short-duration crops. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are therefore correct. Statement 3 is wrong because SSI does not prohibit chemical fertilisers; it only encourages judicious and balanced use of nutrients along with organic inputs. Hence the correct combination is 1, 2 and 4 only.
- Q2
If a wetland of international importance is brought under the 'Montreux Record', what does it imply?
- A. Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference ✓ Correct
- B. The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilometres from the edge of the wetland
- C. The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed
- D. It is given the status of 'World Heritage Site'
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Montreux Record is a register maintained under the Ramsar Convention that lists wetlands of international importance where adverse changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. Inclusion is meant to draw attention so that priority conservation action follows. Keoladeo National Park and Loktak Lake from India are on this register. The other options are unrelated: it is not a buffer-zone law, has nothing to do with cultural practices of nearby communities, and does not confer World Heritage status, which is governed by UNESCO.
- Q3
Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the 'Ten Degree Channel'?
- A. Andaman and Nicobar ✓ Correct
- B. Nicobar and Sumatra
- C. Maldives and Lakshadweep
- D. Sumatra and Java
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Ten Degree Channel is a strait of the Bay of Bengal that lies along the 10th parallel of north latitude and separates the Andaman group of islands in the north from the Nicobar group in the south. It is roughly 150 km wide and is an important sea lane for ships moving between the Indian Ocean and the Strait of Malacca. The Six Degree Channel separates Great Nicobar from Sumatra, the Eight Degree Channel separates the Maldives from Lakshadweep, and the Sunda Strait separates Sumatra from Java. Hence the correct pairing is Andaman and Nicobar.
- Q4
Consider the following pairs: Programme/Project : Ministry 1. Drought-Prone Area Programme : Ministry of Agriculture 2. Desert Development Programme : Ministry of Environment and Forests 3. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas : Ministry of Rural Development. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. None ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
All three pairs are wrongly matched. The Drought-Prone Area Programme, the Desert Development Programme and the National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas were all administered by the Department of Land Resources under the Ministry of Rural Development, not by the Ministry of Agriculture or the Ministry of Environment and Forests. From 1 April 2008 these schemes were merged with the Integrated Wastelands Development Programme into the Integrated Watershed Management Programme, again under the Ministry of Rural Development. Therefore none of the three given pairings is correct, and option (d) None is the right answer.
- Q5
With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements: 1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. 2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness. 3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Bombay Natural History Society, founded in 1883, is a non-governmental, pan-India wildlife research organisation, not an autonomous body under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, although it is recognised as a Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation. Statement 1 is therefore incorrect. The Society does pursue conservation through research, education and public awareness, runs publications such as Hornbill and the Journal, and regularly organises nature trails, camps and citizen-science programmes for the general public. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hence the right combination is 2 and 3 only.
- Q6
With reference to 'Global Environment Facility', which of the following statements is/are correct?
- A. It serves as financial mechanism for 'Convention on Biological Diversity' and 'United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change' ✓ Correct
- B. It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level
- C. It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment
- D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Global Environment Facility, established in 1991, is a financial mechanism that provides grants and concessional funding to developing countries for projects on biodiversity, climate change, international waters, land degradation, the ozone layer and persistent organic pollutants. It serves as the financial mechanism for several multilateral environmental agreements, including the Convention on Biological Diversity and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. It does not itself conduct scientific research, so statement 2 is wrong. It is not an OECD agency; it is housed at the World Bank and partners with UNDP and UNEP. Hence only statement 1 is correct.
- Q7
With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statements: 1. 'Photovoltaics' is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while 'Solar Thermal' is a technology that utilizes the Sun's rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process. 2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC). 3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only ✓ Correct
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. None
Answer: A
Show explanation
Photovoltaic technology converts sunlight directly into electricity using semiconductor cells, while solar thermal technology concentrates the Sun's rays to produce heat that drives a turbine to generate electricity, so statement 1 is correct. Photovoltaic cells generate direct current that is converted to alternating current through inverters; solar thermal plants use conventional generators that produce alternating current, so statement 2 is wrong. India has a domestic manufacturing base for photovoltaic modules and cells, and only a limited base for solar thermal components, making statement 3 also incorrect. Hence only statement 1 is correct.
- Q8
Consider the following languages: 1. Gujarati 2. Kannada 3. Telugu. Which of the above has/have been declared as 'Classical Language/Languages' by the Government?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 only
- C. 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Government of India confers Classical Language status on languages with a long literary tradition, ancient texts and an independent grammatical system. By 2014, six languages had been so declared: Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada and Telugu (both 2008), Malayalam (2013) and Odia (2014). Gujarati had not been granted this status at the time of the examination. Therefore among the three options, only Kannada and Telugu were Classical Languages, making the correct combination 2 and 3 only.
- Q9
Consider the following pairs: 1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram 2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim 3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Show explanation
Dampa Tiger Reserve is the largest wildlife sanctuary in Mizoram, located along the Bangladesh border, so pair 1 is correctly matched. Saramati, at about 3,826 metres, is the highest peak of Nagaland and lies on the state's border with Myanmar, so pair 3 is also correct. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Gomati district of Tripura, not in Sikkim, so pair 2 is wrongly matched. Hence the correct combination is 1 and 3 only.
- Q10 · Environment & Ecology
With reference to a conservation organization called 'Wetlands International', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention. 2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only ✓ Correct
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Ramsar Convention (1971) is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands. It was signed in Ramsar, Iran. India has 80+ Ramsar sites including Sambhar Lake, Keoladeo (Rajasthan), Chilika Lake (Odisha), and others.
- Q11
With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements: 1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009. 2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only ✓ Correct
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Show explanation
The first BRIC summit was held at Yekaterinburg in Russia in June 2009, not in Rio de Janeiro, so statement 1 is wrong. South Africa joined the grouping in December 2010 at the invitation of the existing members and attended its first summit in Sanya, China, in April 2011, after which the acronym was changed from BRIC to BRICS. South Africa was indeed the latest of the five to join, so statement 2 is correct. Hence only statement 2 is right.
- Q12
Consider the following diseases: 1. Diphtheria 2. Chickenpox 3. Smallpox. Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 only ✓ Correct
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. None
Answer: B
Show explanation
Smallpox is the only disease that has been completely eradicated. India was declared smallpox-free in 1977 and the World Health Organization certified global eradication in 1980. Diphtheria continues to occur in India, and outbreaks among unimmunised children are reported regularly, so it has not been eradicated. Chickenpox, caused by the varicella-zoster virus, is also still common in India. Therefore among the three diseases listed, only smallpox has been eradicated, and the correct option is 3 only.
- Q13
Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms? 1. Continental drift 2. Glacial cycles. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Show explanation
Continental drift physically separated landmasses, isolating populations and allowing them to evolve along different lines, which explains, for example, the unique fauna of Australia and South America. Glacial cycles repeatedly altered climate, sea level and habitat distribution; species were forced into refugia, populations fragmented and re-mixed, and selection pressures changed, giving strong drivers of speciation and extinction. Both phenomena have therefore had important influences on the evolution of organisms, so the correct answer is Both 1 and 2.
- Q14
Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins? 1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers 2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers 3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally 4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1, 3 and 4 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Show explanation
Construction of dams and barrages on rivers fragments the habitat of the Ganges River Dolphin, restricts movement and alters flow, all of which are major causes of decline, so statement 1 is correct. The dolphins are also frequently entangled in gill nets and other fishing gear used in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna system, so statement 3 is correct. Synthetic fertilisers and pesticides reach the rivers as agricultural runoff, accumulate in fish and impair dolphin health, so statement 4 is correct. Crocodile populations have not increased to threaten dolphins, so statement 2 is wrong. Hence 1, 3 and 4 only.
- Q15
The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to
- A. solve the problem of minorities in India
- B. give effect to the Independence Bill
- C. delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan ✓ Correct
- D. enquire into the riots in East Bengal
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Radcliffe Boundary Commission, headed by the British lawyer Sir Cyril Radcliffe, was constituted in 1947 under the Indian Independence Act to demarcate the international boundary between the new dominions of India and Pakistan in the partitioned provinces of Punjab and Bengal. The award was made public on 17 August 1947 and determined the line that became the present India-Pakistan border in those regions. It was not concerned with the general problem of minorities, did not implement the Independence Bill itself, and did not investigate the East Bengal riots. Hence option (c) is correct.
- Q16
Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use? 1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment. 2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Show explanation
Brominated flame retardants are a class of organobromine compounds added to mattresses, upholstery, electronic casings and textiles to slow ignition. They are persistent in the environment and are highly resistant to physical, chemical and biological degradation, so statement 1 is correct. Being lipophilic, they bioaccumulate in the fatty tissues of humans and animals, and biomagnify up the food chain; some are linked to endocrine disruption and developmental effects, which makes statement 2 correct. Hence the right answer is Both 1 and 2.
- Q17
Consider the following: 1. Bats 2. Bears 3. Rodents. The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
- D. Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above
Answer: C
Show explanation
Hibernation is a state of regulated metabolic depression that allows animals to survive periods of cold and food scarcity. Several bat species in temperate regions hibernate in caves and mines through the winter. Many bears, including the brown bear and the American black bear, undergo a winter dormancy commonly described as hibernation. Numerous rodents such as ground squirrels, marmots, hamsters and dormice are classic deep hibernators. All three groups therefore include species that hibernate, so the correct option is 1, 2 and 3.
- Q18
Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
- A. The Committee on Public Accounts
- B. The Committee on Estimates ✓ Correct
- C. The Committee on Public Undertakings
- D. The Committee on Petitions
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Estimates Committee of the Indian Parliament is the largest of the financial committees. It consists of 30 members, all drawn from the Lok Sabha; the Rajya Sabha is not represented on it. The Committee on Public Accounts has 22 members, drawn from both houses, and the Committee on Public Undertakings also has 22 members. The Committee on Petitions of the Lok Sabha has 15 members. Hence among the choices given, the Estimates Committee is the largest, making option (b) correct.
- Q19
Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? 1. Volcanic action 2. Respiration 3. Photosynthesis 4. Decay of organic matter. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 2 only
- C. 1, 2 and 4 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Show explanation
Volcanic eruptions release large quantities of carbon dioxide and other gases from the Earth's interior into the atmosphere, so statement 1 adds carbon dioxide. Respiration in animals, plants and microorganisms breaks down organic compounds and releases carbon dioxide, so statement 2 also adds it. Decay of organic matter, mediated mainly by bacteria and fungi, oxidises carbon and releases carbon dioxide, making statement 4 correct as well. Photosynthesis, by contrast, removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and fixes it in plant tissues, so statement 3 is wrong. Hence the correct combination is 1, 2 and 4 only.
- Q20
If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is/are such bird/birds? 1. Painted Stork 2. Common Myna 3. Black-necked Crane. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 2 only ✓ Correct
- C. 2 and 3
- D. 3 only
Answer: B
Show explanation
Birds that follow grazing cattle to feed on insects flushed up by their movement are typical commensal foragers. The Common Myna is a classic example; it walks alongside livestock and snaps up grasshoppers and other insects disturbed by hooves. The Painted Stork is a wading bird that feeds in shallow water on fish and amphibians and does not associate with grazing cattle. The Black-necked Crane is a high-altitude bird of Ladakh and Tibetan plateau wetlands and is not seen in cattle pastures of the countryside. Hence only the Common Myna fits, making option (b) correct.
- Q21
In medieval India, the designations 'Mahattara' and 'Pattakila' were used for
- A. military officers
- B. village headmen ✓ Correct
- C. specialists in Vedic rituals
- D. chiefs of craft guilds
Answer: B
Show explanation
In early medieval Indian inscriptions and texts, the Sanskrit terms Mahattara and Pattakila were used for village headmen. Mahattara, literally meaning the elder or the most respected one, denoted the senior figure of a village community who took part in local administration and dispute settlement. Pattakila, the source of the modern Hindi word patel, designated the headman responsible for revenue collection and order in his village. Neither term referred to military officers, Vedic ritual specialists or chiefs of craft guilds. Hence option (b), village headmen, is correct.
- Q22
Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of
- A. algae and bacteria
- B. algae and fungi ✓ Correct
- C. bacteria and fungi
- D. fungi and mosses
Answer: B
Show explanation
Lichens are pioneer organisms that can colonise bare rock and initiate primary succession by gradually weathering the rock surface. They are not single organisms but stable symbiotic associations between a fungal partner, called the mycobiont, which provides structure, water retention and protection, and a photosynthetic partner, called the photobiont, which is most often a green alga and sometimes a cyanobacterium. The fungus benefits by receiving carbohydrates produced by the photobiont. The classical and most accurate description, therefore, is that lichens are a symbiosis of algae and fungi, making option (b) correct.
- Q23
If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there? 1. Oak 2. Rhododendron 3. Sandalwood. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
- B. 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Show explanation
Several species of oak are native to the temperate broad-leaved forests of the Himalayas, occurring widely between about 1,500 and 3,000 metres. Rhododendrons are also characteristic Himalayan plants, ranging from arboreal species in temperate forests to dwarf shrubs in alpine zones, and are well represented in Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Sandalwood, however, is a tree of the dry deciduous forests of peninsular India, particularly Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, and does not naturally grow in the Himalayas. Hence the correct combination is 1 and 2 only.
- Q24
Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India? 1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxides of nitrogen 3. Carbon monoxide 4. Carbon dioxide. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1, 3 and 4 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Steel making is highly energy- and material-intensive and releases a wide range of air pollutants. Combustion of coke and other fuels releases sulphur dioxide and other oxides of sulphur from the sulphur in the fuel, and high-temperature combustion produces large quantities of nitrogen oxides. Coke ovens and blast furnaces emit carbon monoxide as an intermediate product of incomplete combustion and reduction reactions, while complete oxidation of carbon yields carbon dioxide, a major greenhouse gas. All four pollutants listed are therefore associated with the steel industry, so the correct option is 1, 2, 3 and 4.
- Q25
Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha? 1. Avanti 2. Gandhara 3. Kosala 4. Magadha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1, 2 and 3
- B. 2 and 4
- C. 3 and 4 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Buddha's life unfolded in the Gangetic plain, where he interacted with the Mahajanapadas of Kosala and Magadha. Sravasti, the capital of Kosala, was a major centre of his teaching, and he is said to have spent many rains retreats there. Magadha, ruled by Bimbisara and later Ajatashatru, was where he attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya and delivered many sermons at Rajagriha. Avanti, with its capital Ujjain, was contemporaneous and influential during his lifetime as well. Gandhara, lying in the north-west, was geographically remote and not associated with his life. Hence 1, 3 and 4 is correct.
- Q26
Every year, a monthlong ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities/tribes?
- A. Bhutia and Lepcha
- B. Gond and Korku ✓ Correct
- C. Irula and Toda
- D. Sahariya and Agariya
Answer: B
Show explanation
The reference is to the month-long Hareli or related festivals of central India, during which Gond and Korku tribes of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees such as mango, jamun and mahua to mark the agricultural new year and ensure ecological renewal. The Bhutia and Lepcha communities of Sikkim, the Irula and Toda of the Nilgiris, and the Sahariya and Agariya of central India do not run such a structured month-long sapling-plantation campaign. Hence option (b), Gond and Korku, is correct.
- Q27
The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a
- A. tax imposed by the Central Government
- B. tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government
- C. tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government
- D. tax imposed and collected by the State Government ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Sales tax on goods such as toothpaste, before the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax in 2017, was a state subject. Under Entry 54 of the State List of the Seventh Schedule, the State Government had the power to impose tax on the sale or purchase of goods other than newspapers, and the same State Government collected the tax through its Commercial Tax Department. The Central Government imposed Central Sales Tax only on inter-state sales, but for an intra-state retail purchase the levy was both imposed and collected by the State. Hence option (d) is correct.
- Q28
What does venture capital mean?
- A. A short-term capital provided to industries
- B. A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs ✓ Correct
- C. Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses
- D. Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries
Answer: B
Show explanation
Venture capital is a form of private equity finance that is provided to new and emerging enterprises with strong growth potential but limited access to ordinary bank credit. It is typically a long-term, equity-based investment in start-ups and early-stage firms working on innovative products, services or technologies, where the venture capitalist accepts high risk in exchange for a share in ownership and the prospect of substantial future returns. It is not a short-term loan, not aimed at firms in distress, and not meant for routine replacement or renovation of plant and machinery. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Q29
The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is
- A. inclusive growth and poverty reduction
- B. inclusive and sustainable growth
- C. sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment
- D. faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Twelfth Five-Year Plan, covering the period 2012-13 to 2016-17 and prepared by the Planning Commission, took as its central theme the goal of Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth. The phrasing was a deliberate refinement of the Eleventh Plan goal of Faster and More Inclusive Growth, with the explicit addition of sustainability to highlight environmental concerns and the need for prudent use of natural resources. The other options drop or rearrange one or more of these elements and do not match the official statement. Hence option (d) is correct.
- Q30
With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account? 1. Balance of trade 2. Foreign assets 3. Balance of invisibles 4. Special Drawing Rights. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 1 and 3 ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2 and 4
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Current Account of the Balance of Payments records cross-border transactions in goods, services, primary income and current transfers. The Balance of Trade, which is the difference between merchandise exports and imports, is its largest component, so statement 1 is included. The Balance of Invisibles covers services, transfers and income, and is the second main component, so statement 3 is included. Foreign assets and Special Drawing Rights are recorded in the Capital Account or in reserve assets, not in the Current Account, so statements 2 and 4 are excluded. Hence the correct option is 1 and 3.
- Q31
The terms 'Marginal Standing Facility Rate' and 'Net Demand and Time Liabilities', sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to
- A. banking operations ✓ Correct
- B. communication networking
- C. military strategies
- D. supply and demand of agricultural products
Answer: A
Show explanation
Marginal Standing Facility is a window introduced by the Reserve Bank of India in 2011 through which scheduled commercial banks can borrow overnight funds from the central bank against approved government securities, normally at a rate above the repo rate; the rate at which they can do so is the MSF rate. Net Demand and Time Liabilities, NDTL, is the aggregate of demand and time deposits and other liabilities of a bank used to compute the Cash Reserve Ratio and the Statutory Liquidity Ratio. Both terms are squarely from the field of banking operations, so option (a) is correct.
- Q32
What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas? 1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages. 2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Show explanation
Business Correspondents, branded Bank Saathi, are agents engaged by banks under the RBI's branchless banking model to extend financial services in remote areas where setting up a brick-and-mortar branch is not viable. They allow rural customers to open no-frills accounts, deposit and withdraw cash through micro-ATMs, and remit funds. They are also a key channel for direct benefit transfers, enabling beneficiaries to draw subsidies, MGNREGA wages, pensions and other social security benefits in their own villages. Both stated facilities are therefore provided through them, making the correct answer Both 1 and 2.
- Q33
In the context of Indian economy, which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of 'Statutory Reserve Requirements'? 1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create 2. To make the people's deposits with banks safe and liquid 3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits 4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Show explanation
Statutory reserve requirements in India consist of the Cash Reserve Ratio and the Statutory Liquidity Ratio. They give the Reserve Bank of India a powerful instrument to control the volume of credit that commercial banks can create by altering the funds available for lending, so statement 1 is correct. They also help ensure that banks always retain a portion of deposits in liquid form, providing safety and liquidity to depositors, so statement 2 is correct. Their objective is not to cap profits, and day-to-day vault cash is governed by separate operational requirements rather than these ratios. Hence 1 and 2 only.
- Q34
Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as 'Arab Spring' originally started from
- A. Egypt
- B. Lebanon
- C. Syria
- D. Tunisia ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The wave of pro-democracy uprisings that swept the Arab world from late 2010 onwards is collectively known as the Arab Spring. It began in Tunisia in December 2010, when the self-immolation of the street vendor Mohamed Bouazizi in Sidi Bouzid triggered mass protests against the regime of President Zine El Abidine Ben Ali. By January 2011 he had fled the country, and the Tunisian example then inspired similar movements in Egypt, Libya, Yemen, Bahrain and Syria. The protests therefore originally started in Tunisia, making option (d) correct.
- Q35
Consider the following countries: 1. Denmark 2. Japan 3. Russian Federation 4. United Kingdom 5. United States of America. Which of the above are the members of the 'Arctic Council'?
- A. 1, 2 and 3
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 4 and 5
- D. 1, 3 and 5 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Arctic Council, established by the Ottawa Declaration of 1996, is an intergovernmental forum of the eight states that have territory above the Arctic Circle. Its members are Canada, Denmark (including Greenland and the Faroe Islands), Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and the United States of America. From the list given, Denmark, the Russian Federation and the United States are members, while Japan and the United Kingdom hold only Observer status. Hence the correct combination is 1, 3 and 5.
- Q36
Consider the following pairs: Region often in news : Country 1. Chechnya : Russian Federation 2. Darfur : Mali 3. Swat Valley : Iraq. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A. 1 only ✓ Correct
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Show explanation
Chechnya is a republic in the North Caucasus and forms part of the Russian Federation, so pair 1 is correctly matched. Darfur is a region in the western part of Sudan and has been the site of a long-running humanitarian crisis; it is not in Mali, so pair 2 is wrongly matched. The Swat Valley lies in the Khyber Pakhtunkhwa province of Pakistan and is associated with Taliban-related militancy and the rights activism of Malala Yousafzai; it is not in Iraq, so pair 3 is wrong. Hence only pair 1 is correctly matched, making option (a) correct.
- Q37
With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a surface-to-surface missile. 2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. 3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only ✓ Correct
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Show explanation
Agni-IV is a long-range, surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation, so statement 1 is correct. It is a two-stage missile powered by solid propellant, not liquid; the use of solid fuel gives faster reaction time and easier handling, so statement 2 is wrong. Its tested range is about 4,000 km, which makes it suitable for striking targets across most of Asia but well short of 7,500 km, so statement 3 is also wrong. Hence only statement 1 is correct.
- Q38
With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called 'coalbed methane' and 'shale gas', consider the following statements: 1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks. 2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Coalbed methane is methane adsorbed onto the internal surfaces of coal seams; in practice the produced gas is mostly methane but may include small amounts of other hydrocarbons, water vapour and nitrogen. Shale gas is also primarily natural gas, predominantly methane, trapped in fine-grained sedimentary shale formations, not a mixture of propane and butane only. Statement 1 is therefore wrong on both counts. India does have significant coalbed methane resources, but exploration has also identified prospective shale gas basins in the Cambay, Krishna-Godavari, Cauvery and Damodar regions, so statement 2 is also wrong. Hence Neither 1 nor 2.
- Q39
With reference to 'Changpa' community of India, consider the following statements: 1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand. 2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool. 3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- C. 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Changpa are a semi-nomadic pastoral community that lives mainly on the high Changthang plateau of eastern Ladakh, with smaller populations in adjoining parts of Tibet, not in Uttarakhand, so statement 1 is wrong. They rear the Changthangi or Pashmina goat, whose fine winter undercoat is the source of the famous Pashmina wool, making statement 2 correct. The Changpa are recognised as a Scheduled Tribe in Jammu and Kashmir, now Ladakh, so statement 3 is correct. Hence 2 and 3 only.
- Q40
In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?
- A. The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics
- B. The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas ✓ Correct
- C. The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of anti-histamines
- D. It is a source of high quality biodiesel
Answer: B
Show explanation
Cluster bean, locally called guar, is a leguminous crop grown widely in Rajasthan, Haryana and Gujarat. The economically valuable product is guar gum, a galactomannan polysaccharide extracted from its seeds. Guar gum is used as a thickener and stabiliser in food and many industrial processes, but its sharp rise in importance came from its use as a fracturing fluid in hydraulic fracturing for shale gas and tight oil extraction, where it controls viscosity and proppant transport. It is not the basis of biodegradable plastics, antihistamines or biodiesel. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Q41 · Geography of India
Which of the following have coral reefs? 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Gulf of Kachchh 3. Gulf of Mannar 4. Sunderbans. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1, 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- B. 2 and 4 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are the exposed peaks of a submerged mountain chain (extension of the Arakan Yoma range of Myanmar). Barren Island has India's only active volcano. The islands have 572 islands, 37 inhabited.
- Q42
In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following? 1. Terrace cultivation 2. Deforestation 3. Tropical climate. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 only ✓ Correct
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Show explanation
Soil erosion in India is influenced by all three factors. Improperly designed terrace cultivation on steep slopes can leave soil exposed and increase runoff and gully formation, so statement 1 is correct. Deforestation removes the protective canopy and root mat that bind the soil, sharply increasing rates of sheet and rill erosion, so statement 2 is correct. The tropical climate, with intense seasonal rainfall and high temperatures, generates powerful runoff and rapid weathering, accelerating soil loss, especially on degraded land, so statement 3 is also correct. Hence 1, 2 and 3.
- Q43
The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of
- A. Equatorial climate
- B. Mediterranean climate
- C. Monsoon climate ✓ Correct
- D. All of the above climates
Answer: C
Show explanation
The defining feature of monsoon climates is the seasonal reversal of the prevailing surface winds caused by differential heating of land and sea. In South Asia and parts of Southeast Asia, summer warming of the continent draws in moist, southwesterly winds from the Indian Ocean, producing the wet south-west monsoon, while in winter the cooled landmass becomes a high-pressure source and dry, northeasterly winds blow out from it, producing the north-east monsoon. Equatorial regions have nearly constant easterlies and Mediterranean climates are characterised by westerlies in winter alone, with no equivalent reversal. Hence option (c) is correct.
- Q44
With reference to the cultural history of India, the term 'Panchayatan' refers to
- A. an assembly of village elders
- B. a religious sect
- C. a style of temple construction ✓ Correct
- D. an administrative functionary
Answer: C
Show explanation
Panchayatan refers to a style of Hindu temple architecture in which a principal shrine in the centre is surrounded by four subsidiary shrines placed at the corners of the same plinth, giving a total of five linked shrines. The plan was used widely in northern and central India from the early medieval period onwards and is seen, for example, at the Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh and many later Nagara-style complexes. The term has nothing to do with village assemblies, religious sects or administrative officers; it is purely an architectural concept, making option (c) correct.
- Q45
Consider the following rivers: 1. Barak 2. Lohit 3. Subansiri. Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Show explanation
All three rivers flow through Arunachal Pradesh. The Lohit rises in eastern Tibet, enters India in Arunachal Pradesh and joins the Brahmaputra in Assam, so statement 2 is correct. The Subansiri also originates in Tibet, descends through the Subansiri district of Arunachal Pradesh and then flows into Assam, so statement 3 is correct. The Barak rises in the Manipur Hills and flows through southern Manipur, but its upper catchment lies in southern Arunachal Pradesh's Tirap and adjoining hills, and the river is regarded as flowing through it. Hence the correct option is 1, 2 and 3.
- Q46
Consider the following pairs: Wetlands : Confluence of rivers 1. Harike Wetlands : Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej 2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park : Confluence of Banas and Chambal 3. Kolleru Lake : Confluence of Musi and Krishna. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A. 1 only ✓ Correct
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Show explanation
Harike Wetland in Punjab lies at the confluence of the Beas and the Sutlej, downstream of which the rivers form a single channel; the area is a Ramsar site and an important waterfowl habitat. Pair 1 is therefore correct. Keoladeo Ghana National Park near Bharatpur is a man-made wetland fed by water diverted from the Gambhir and Banganga rivers, not from the confluence of the Banas and the Chambal, so pair 2 is wrong. Kolleru Lake in Andhra Pradesh lies between the Krishna and the Godavari deltas and is fed by minor streams, not by the confluence of the Musi and the Krishna, so pair 3 is wrong. Hence 1 only.
- Q47
Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?
- A. Mimamsa and Vedanta
- B. Nyaya and Vaisheshika
- C. Lokayata and Kapalika ✓ Correct
- D. Sankhya and Yoga
Answer: C
Show explanation
The six orthodox systems of classical Indian philosophy, the Shad-darshanas, are Nyaya and Vaisheshika, Sankhya and Yoga, and Mimamsa and Vedanta. They are called orthodox because they accept the authority of the Vedas. Lokayata, also known as Charvaka, is a materialist school that rejects the Vedas and is classified as a heterodox system; Kapalika is a Tantric Shaiva sect, not a philosophical school of the six-fold canon. The pair Lokayata and Kapalika is therefore not part of the six systems of Indian philosophy, making option (c) the correct answer.
- Q48
Consider the following pairs: Hills : Region 1. Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast 2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast 3. Mahadeo Hills : Central India 4. Mikir Hills : North-East India. Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 3 and 4 ✓ Correct
- D. 2 and 4
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Cardamom Hills lie at the southern end of the Western Ghats, mainly in Kerala and Tamil Nadu, and form part of the Malabar Coast region, not the Coromandel Coast, so pair 1 is wrong. The Kaimur Hills are an eastward extension of the Vindhyan range across Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Jharkhand, lying in central-eastern India, not on the Konkan Coast, so pair 2 is wrong. The Mahadeo Hills are part of the Satpura range in Madhya Pradesh, central India, so pair 3 is correct. The Mikir Hills are located in Assam, in the North-East, so pair 4 is also correct. Hence 3 and 4.
- Q49
Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
- A. Second Schedule
- B. Fifth Schedule
- C. Eighth Schedule
- D. Tenth Schedule ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains the anti-defection law. It was inserted by the Fifty-second Amendment Act of 1985 and lays down the conditions under which members of Parliament and state legislatures can be disqualified from membership for defecting from the political party on whose ticket they were elected. The Second Schedule deals with salaries and allowances of constitutional functionaries, the Fifth Schedule with the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes, and the Eighth Schedule with the recognised languages. Hence option (d) Tenth Schedule is correct.
- Q50
The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of
- A. biosphere reserves ✓ Correct
- B. botanical gardens
- C. national parks
- D. wildlife sanctuaries
Answer: A
Show explanation
Biosphere reserves are conservation areas designated under the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere Programme. They are organised into a strictly protected core, a managed buffer and a transition zone where human activity, including farming, dwelling and traditional livelihoods, is integrated with conservation goals. Their explicit aim is to conserve genetic, species and ecosystem diversity along with the cultures and traditional ways of life of local communities. Botanical gardens, national parks and wildlife sanctuaries focus mainly on species or habitat protection and exclude or restrict human settlement. Hence option (a) is the most appropriate answer.
- Q51
Turkey is located between
- A. Black Sea and Caspian Sea
- B. Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea ✓ Correct
- C. Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
- D. Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
Answer: B
Show explanation
Turkey occupies a transcontinental position bridging Europe and Asia. Its northern coast borders the Black Sea, while its western coast faces the Aegean and its southern coast faces the Mediterranean Sea, both arms of the Mediterranean basin. The country is therefore most accurately described as lying between the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea. The Caspian Sea lies further east, beyond Iran and the Caucasus, while the Gulf of Suez, the Gulf of Aqaba and the Dead Sea are all far to the south, between Egypt, Israel and Jordan. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Q52
What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north? 1. Bangkok 2. Hanoi 3. Jakarta 4. Singapore. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 4-2-1-3
- B. 3-2-4-1
- C. 3-4-1-2 ✓ Correct
- D. 4-3-2-1
Answer: C
Show explanation
Reading the cities by latitude, Jakarta is in Indonesia at about 6 degrees south, the only city in the southern hemisphere among the four. Singapore lies just north of the equator at about 1 degree north. Bangkok in Thailand is further north at about 13 degrees north. Hanoi in northern Vietnam is the northernmost at about 21 degrees north. Proceeding from south to north, therefore, the order is Jakarta, Singapore, Bangkok, Hanoi, which corresponds to the sequence 3-4-1-2. Hence option (c) is correct.
- Q53
The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 °C above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3 °C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world? 1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source. 2. Widespread coral mortality will occur. 3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear. 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
- C. 2, 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Show explanation
Beyond a 3 degrees Celsius rise, climate models project that warming, drought stress and forest dieback would cause the terrestrial biosphere to shift from a net carbon sink to a net carbon source as soils and forests release more carbon than they absorb, so statement 1 is correct. Higher sea surface temperatures and acidification would cause widespread bleaching and large-scale coral mortality, making statement 2 correct. Wetlands would not all permanently disappear, and cereal cultivation would still be possible in many regions, so statements 3 and 4 are exaggerations. Hence 1 and 2 only.
- Q54
The national motto of India, 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from
- A. Katha Upanishad
- B. Chandogya Upanishad
- C. Aitareya Upanishad
- D. Mundaka Upanishad ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The national motto of India, Satyameva Jayate, meaning Truth Alone Triumphs, is taken from the Mundaka Upanishad, one of the principal Upanishads belonging to the Atharvaveda. The phrase appears in verse 3.1.6 of the text and was adopted as the national motto when the State Emblem of India, based on the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath, was inscribed with it after independence. The Katha, Chandogya and Aitareya Upanishads, although equally important philosophical texts, are not the source of this motto. Hence option (d) Mundaka Upanishad is correct.
- Q55
In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the
- A. Preamble to the Constitution
- B. Directive Principles of State Policy ✓ Correct
- C. Fundamental Duties
- D. Ninth Schedule
Answer: B
Show explanation
The promotion of international peace and security is included in the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. Article 51 specifically directs the State to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honourable relations between nations, foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration. The Preamble speaks of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity but not international peace; Fundamental Duties under Article 51A are about citizens' duties; and the Ninth Schedule deals with land reforms. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Q56
What are the benefits of implementing the 'Integrated Watershed Development Programme'? 1. Prevention of soil runoff 2. Linking the country's perennial rivers with seasonal rivers 3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table 4. Regeneration of natural vegetation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2, 3 and 4 only
- C. 1, 3 and 4 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Integrated Watershed Management Programme is a flagship scheme of the Department of Land Resources that treats degraded rainfed land at the watershed level. Its core interventions include soil and moisture conservation, contour bunding and check dams, which prevent soil runoff and so cover statement 1. Recharge of groundwater through percolation tanks and rainwater harvesting structures is a central objective, covering statement 3. Regeneration of natural vegetation through afforestation and pasture development is also integral, covering statement 4. The programme does not, however, undertake interlinking of perennial and seasonal rivers, so statement 2 is wrong. Hence 1, 3 and 4 only.
- Q57
Which of the following are associated with 'Planning' in India? 1. The Finance Commission 2. The National Development Council 3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development 4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development 5. The Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1, 2 and 5 only
- B. 1, 3 and 4 only
- C. 2 and 5 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: C
Show explanation
Planning in India, when broadly understood, involves a wide circle of constitutional and executive bodies. The Finance Commission recommends the sharing of resources that finances Plan and Non-Plan expenditure, and reviews state finances. The National Development Council, then the apex body for the Five-Year Plans, formally approved every Plan. Central ministries dealing with rural and urban development have always been deeply involved in formulating and implementing Plan schemes in their domains. Parliament debates and finally approves Plan documents and the linked budgetary allocations. All five entities listed are therefore associated with planning, making option (d) correct.
- Q58
Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees 3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Cabinet Secretariat, headed by the Cabinet Secretary, provides the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers with secretarial support and ensures inter-ministerial coordination. Among its core functions are the preparation of the agenda for Cabinet meetings, circulation of papers, recording of decisions and follow-up action, so statement 1 is correct. It also provides secretariat services to the various Cabinet Committees, making statement 2 correct. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries, however, is the function of the Ministry of Finance through the budgetary process, not of the Cabinet Secretariat, so statement 3 is wrong. Hence 1 and 2 only.
- Q59
Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which 1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority 2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only ✓ Correct
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Show explanation
A Constitutional Government is one in which the powers of the State are limited by a written or unwritten constitution and by the rule of law in order to safeguard the rights and liberties of individuals. Its defining feature is that it imposes effective restrictions on the authority of the State so that arbitrary action against individual liberty is prevented, which is exactly what statement 2 says. Statement 1 inverts this principle and describes an authoritarian system rather than a constitutional one. Hence only statement 2 is correct, making option (b) the right answer.
- Q60
Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President's rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- C. 2, 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Governor exercises some functions in his discretion, independent of the Council of Ministers. He can send a report to the President recommending President's rule under Article 356 if he is satisfied that the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution, so statement 1 is a discretionary power. He can also reserve certain bills passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President under Article 200, so statement 3 is discretionary. Appointing Ministers and making rules for the conduct of State Government business are done on the advice of the Council of Ministers, not at his discretion. Hence 1 and 3 only.
- Q61
If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will
- A. decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy
- B. increase the tax collection of the Government
- C. increase the investment expenditure in the economy ✓ Correct
- D. increase the total savings in the economy
Answer: C
Show explanation
A reduction in the interest rate makes borrowing cheaper for firms and households. With a lower cost of capital, more investment projects clear the hurdle rate, so businesses borrow more to finance new plants, machinery and inventory, increasing investment expenditure in the economy. Lower deposit rates also reduce the reward for saving, so consumption tends to rise rather than fall and total savings tend to decline. There is no direct mechanism by which lower interest rates increase tax collection. Hence the most accurate effect listed is the increase in investment expenditure, making option (c) correct.
- Q62
Consider the following statements: 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. 2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only ✓ Correct
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Show explanation
Article 77 of the Constitution provides that all executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President, not the Prime Minister, and that the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India and for the allocation of that business among Ministers. Statement 1 paraphrases this provision and is therefore correct. Statement 2 wrongly substitutes the Prime Minister for the President and is therefore incorrect. Hence only statement 1 is correct, making option (a) the right answer.
- Q63 · Indian Constitution & Governance
Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India: 1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India. 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2 ✓ Correct
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Show explanation
No-confidence motion can only be moved in Lok Sabha because Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)).
- Q64
With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements: 1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites. 2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents. 3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Show explanation
Neem oil contains azadirachtin and other limonoids that act as feeding deterrents and growth regulators for many insects and mites, and it is widely used as a botanical pesticide, so statement 1 is correct. Neem seed oil is being used as a feedstock for biodiesel production, and neem-based formulations are used as antimicrobial agents and components of hospital detergents and disinfectants, so statement 2 is correct. Neem oil and neem extracts have multiple applications in the pharmaceutical industry, including in skin treatments, dental care and antibacterial products, so statement 3 is correct. Hence 1, 2 and 3.
- Q65
Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
- A. Potential energy is released to form free energy
- B. Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored ✓ Correct
- C. Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
- D. Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out
Answer: B
Show explanation
Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants and certain other organisms use solar energy to synthesise carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water. Light energy, an external form of free energy, is absorbed by chlorophyll and used to drive endergonic reactions that ultimately store this energy in the chemical bonds of glucose. The energy is no longer available as free energy but is locked up as potential energy in the carbohydrate molecule. The process therefore converts free energy into stored potential energy, releases oxygen and absorbs carbon dioxide. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Q66
In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person? 1. Iris scanning 2. Retinal scanning 3. Voice recognition. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Biometric identification uses unique biological traits to authenticate a person. Iris scanning analyses the complex patterns of the coloured ring around the pupil and is highly stable through life, so statement 1 is a valid biometric. Retinal scanning maps the pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye, again unique to each individual, so statement 2 is also valid. Voice recognition uses features of speech such as pitch, cadence and frequency spectrum to identify a speaker and is widely deployed in telephone banking and security systems, so statement 3 is also valid. Hence the correct option is 1, 2 and 3.
- Q67
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants? 1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population. 2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus. 3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Show explanation
Vegetative propagation produces offspring genetically identical to the parent plant, that is, a clonal population, so statement 1 is correct. Because most viruses are systemic in plant tissues, propagating from infected stocks usually transmits the virus to the new plants rather than eliminating it; viral elimination requires special techniques such as meristem culture and thermotherapy, so statement 2 is wrong. Vegetative methods such as cuttings, layering, grafting and tissue culture can be carried out under controlled conditions throughout most of the year, unlike seed propagation that is tied to flowering, so statement 3 is correct. Hence 1 and 3 only.
- Q68
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Spacecraft : Purpose 1. Cassini-Huygens : Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth 2. Messenger : Mapping and investigating the Mercury 3. Voyager 1 and 2 : Exploring the outer solar system. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Show explanation
Cassini-Huygens was a joint NASA-ESA mission to Saturn and its largest moon Titan, not to Venus, so pair 1 is wrongly matched. Messenger, the NASA Mercury Surface, Space Environment, Geochemistry and Ranging mission, was specifically designed to orbit and map Mercury, so pair 2 is correctly matched. Voyager 1 and Voyager 2, launched by NASA in 1977, conducted detailed studies of the outer planets Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune and have continued into interstellar space, exploring the outer solar system, so pair 3 is correctly matched. Hence 2 and 3 only.
- Q69
Consider the following pairs: Region : Well-known for the production of 1. Kinnaur : Areca nut 2. Mewat : Mango 3. Coromandel : Soya bean. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. None ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Kinnaur in Himachal Pradesh is famous for apples, chilgoza pine nuts and walnuts, not for areca nut, which is a humid tropical crop grown mainly in Karnataka and Kerala, so pair 1 is wrong. Mewat in Haryana is associated with livestock and agriculture but is not particularly known for mango production, which is concentrated in Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra, so pair 2 is wrong. The Coromandel coast in Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh is associated with paddy and groundnut, not soya bean, which is grown mainly in Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra, so pair 3 is wrong. Hence None.
- Q70 · Science & Technology
Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change? 1. Crystallization of sodium chloride 2. Melting of ice 3. Souring of milk. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 only ✓ Correct
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. None
Answer: B
Show explanation
Rusting of iron is a chemical change because iron reacts with oxygen and moisture in the air to form a new substance — iron oxide (Fe2O3·xH2O). Chemical changes produce new substances with different properties and are generally irreversible.
- Q71
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
- A. advisory jurisdiction
- B. appellate jurisdiction
- C. original jurisdiction ✓ Correct
- D. writ jurisdiction
Answer: C
Show explanation
Article 131 of the Constitution confers original jurisdiction on the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and other States on the other, or between two or more States. Original jurisdiction means that such disputes can be brought directly to the Supreme Court without first going to any lower court. Advisory jurisdiction is exercised under Article 143, appellate jurisdiction under Articles 132 to 136, and writ jurisdiction under Article 32. Hence option (c) is correct.
- Q72
Consider the following techniques/phenomena: 1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants 2. Cytoplasmic male sterility 3. Gene silencing. Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 1 and 3
- D. None ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Transgenic crops are plants in which one or more genes from an unrelated organism have been introduced through genetic engineering. Budding and grafting are conventional vegetative propagation techniques used to multiply existing varieties; they do not introduce foreign genes, so statement 1 is wrong. Cytoplasmic male sterility is a naturally occurring or induced trait used in hybrid seed production but does not by itself produce transgenic plants, so statement 2 is wrong. Gene silencing through RNA interference can be a research tool but, as listed here, is not the standard route to creating transgenic crops. Hence None of the techniques produces transgenics.
- Q73
Consider the following statements: 1. Maize can be used for the production of starch. 2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel. 3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Maize is one of the most versatile cereal crops. Its grain is rich in starch, and a major industrial use is the wet milling of maize to produce corn starch for food, paper, textile and pharmaceutical industries, so statement 1 is correct. Oil extracted from the maize germ is edible and is also being used as a feedstock for biodiesel production in several countries, so statement 2 is correct. Maize is widely fermented to produce alcoholic beverages such as bourbon whiskey and traditional country liquors, and is a key feedstock for industrial bioethanol, so statement 3 is correct. Hence 1, 2 and 3.
- Q74
Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three?
- A. Crab ✓ Correct
- B. Mite
- C. Scorpion
- D. Spider
Answer: A
Show explanation
Mites, scorpions and spiders all belong to the class Arachnida, characterised by a body divided into a cephalothorax and abdomen, four pairs of walking legs and the absence of antennae. Crabs, by contrast, belong to the class Crustacea, generally with two pairs of antennae, biramous appendages and a hard exoskeleton adapted to a primarily aquatic lifestyle. Although all four animals are arthropods, the crab is the only one that does not belong to Arachnida. Hence option (a) Crab is the correct answer.
- Q75
The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
- A. the President of India
- B. the Parliament ✓ Correct
- C. the Chief Justice of India
- D. the Law Commission
Answer: B
Show explanation
Article 124(1) of the Constitution provides that the Supreme Court shall consist of the Chief Justice of India and not more than such number of other judges as Parliament may by law prescribe. The strength of the Supreme Court has accordingly been raised from time to time through ordinary legislation enacted by Parliament, such as the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Acts. Neither the President, nor the Chief Justice of India, nor the Law Commission has the power to alter this number on its own. Hence option (b) the Parliament is correct.
- Q76
Consider the following towns of India: 1. Bhadrachalam 2. Chanderi 3. Kancheepuram 4. Karnal. Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees/fabric?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Show explanation
Bhadrachalam in Telangana, on the banks of the Godavari, is well known for its handloom cotton sarees with traditional designs, so statement 1 is correct. Chanderi in Madhya Pradesh has a centuries-old tradition of producing the fine, sheer Chanderi saree in cotton-silk blends, so statement 2 is correct. Kancheepuram in Tamil Nadu is one of India's most famous silk-saree weaving centres, with the Kanjivaram saree being a distinct GI-tagged product, so statement 3 is correct. Karnal in Haryana is an agricultural and industrial centre, not particularly known for traditional sarees or fabrics. Hence 1, 2 and 3.
- Q77
Consider the following pairs: National Highway : Cities connected 1. NH 4 : Chennai and Hyderabad 2. NH 6 : Mumbai and Kolkata 3. NH 15 : Ahmedabad and Jodhpur. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. None ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Under the older national highway numbering, NH 4 ran from Mumbai through Pune, Belgaum and Bangalore to Chennai, with a major branch connecting Chennai with Hyderabad via Bangalore, and is therefore often described as connecting Chennai and Hyderabad as well, so pair 1 is correct. NH 6 ran east-west from Hazira in Gujarat through Nagpur and Raipur to Kolkata, passing through Mumbai's eastern hinterland, so the linkage between Mumbai and Kolkata in pair 2 holds. NH 15 ran along the western frontier through Rajasthan and connected Pathankot to Kandla via Jodhpur and Ahmedabad, so pair 3 is correct. Hence 1, 2 and 3.
- Q78
Consider the following international agreements: 1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture 2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification 3. The World Heritage Convention. Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
All three agreements have a clear bearing on biodiversity. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture, adopted under the FAO, conserves and ensures sustainable use of crop genetic resources and provides for fair sharing of benefits, directly addressing agro-biodiversity. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification combats land degradation and the loss of biological productivity in dryland ecosystems, which sustains substantial biodiversity. The World Heritage Convention protects natural sites of outstanding universal value, many of which are designated specifically for their exceptional biodiversity. Hence the correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.
- Q79
Consider the following statements regarding 'Earth Hour': 1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO. 2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year. 3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Show explanation
Earth Hour is an annual movement organised by the World Wide Fund for Nature, not by UNEP and UNESCO, so statement 1 is wrong. The event takes place on a Saturday evening, usually in March, when individuals, businesses and governments switch off non-essential lights for one hour as a symbolic action, making statement 2 correct. The campaign aims to raise awareness about climate change, biodiversity loss and the need to protect the planet, so statement 3 is correct. Hence the right combination is 2 and 3 only.
- Q80
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?
- A. Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings ✓ Correct
- B. Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings
- C. Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans
- D. Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms
Answer: A
Show explanation
A food chain shows the transfer of energy from producers to successive levels of consumers. Diatoms are microscopic photosynthetic algae that form a major part of marine and freshwater phytoplankton and act as primary producers. Crustaceans such as copepods and krill are herbivorous zooplankton that graze on diatoms and serve as primary consumers. Herrings are small pelagic fish that feed on these crustaceans, occupying the secondary consumer level. The biologically correct sequence of energy flow is therefore Diatoms followed by Crustaceans followed by Herrings, which corresponds to option (a).
- Q81
The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until
- A. the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended
- B. King George V abrogated Curzon's Act at the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911 ✓ Correct
- C. Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement
- D. the Partition of India in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan
Answer: B
Show explanation
Lord Curzon partitioned the province of Bengal in 1905 along religious and administrative lines, triggering a strong Swadeshi and boycott movement. To pacify nationalist opinion and conciliate Muslim and Hindu sentiment, the British annulled the partition during the visit of King George V to India. At the Royal Durbar held in Delhi in December 1911, the King-Emperor announced the reunification of Bengal and the transfer of the imperial capital from Calcutta to Delhi, effectively reversing Curzon's act. The partition therefore lasted only until 1911, making option (b) correct.
- Q82
The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the
- A. attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress
- B. attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress ✓ Correct
- C. Non-Cooperation Movement was launched
- D. decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken
Answer: B
Show explanation
The 1929 session of the Indian National Congress was held in Lahore on the banks of the Ravi under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru. At this session, the Congress, frustrated by the rejection of dominion status, passed the historic Poorna Swaraj resolution declaring complete independence as the goal of the freedom movement. It also resolved to celebrate 26 January 1930 as the first Independence Day. The attainment of dominion-style self-government had been the earlier objective, the Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in 1920, and decisions on the Round Table Conference came later. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Q83
With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: 1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama. 2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam. 3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Show explanation
Sattriya is a classical dance form of Assam introduced in the fifteenth century by the Vaishnavite saint Srimanta Sankaradeva and traditionally performed by male monks called bhokots in the sattras, or monasteries, of Assam. It is a holistic art combining music, dance and drama, so statement 1 is correct, and it is a centuries-old living tradition of the Assamese Vaishnavites, so statement 2 is correct. The repertoire is based on Sankaradeva's Borgeets and on classical Ragas and Talas, not on songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai, so statement 3 is wrong. Hence 1 and 2 only.
- Q84
Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?
- A. 22nd March (or 21st March) ✓ Correct
- B. 15th May (or 16th May)
- C. 31st March (or 30th March)
- D. 21st April (or 20th April)
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Indian national calendar based on the Saka Era, formally adopted in 1957, has Chaitra as its first month with 30 days in a normal year and 31 days in a leap year. In a normal year of 365 days, Chaitra 1 corresponds to 22 March of the Gregorian calendar, while in a leap year it shifts to 21 March. Among the options given, the date that matches in a normal year is therefore 22 March, with 21 March being the leap-year alternative. Hence option (a), 22nd March or 21st March, is correct.
- Q85
With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs: Famous work of sculpture : Site 1. A grand image of Buddha's Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below : Ajanta 2. A huge image of Varaha Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu, as he rescues Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters, sculpted on rock : Mount Abu 3. "Arjuna's Penance"/"Descent of Ganga" sculpted on the surface of huge boulders : Mamallapuram. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Show explanation
The grand image of the Buddha's Mahaparinirvana, with celestial musicians above and grieving disciples below, is carved in Cave 26 at Ajanta and is one of the masterpieces of late Indian rock-cut sculpture, so pair 1 is correctly matched. The famous huge boulder relief known as Arjuna's Penance, also called the Descent of the Ganga, is carved at Mamallapuram in Tamil Nadu under the Pallavas, so pair 3 is correctly matched. The monumental Varaha rescuing the Earth Goddess is carved at Udayagiri in Madhya Pradesh under the Guptas, not at Mount Abu, so pair 2 is wrongly matched. Hence 1 and 3 only.
- Q86
The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a
- A. revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco ✓ Correct
- B. nationalist organization operating from Singapore
- C. militant organization with headquarters at Berlin
- D. communist movement for India's freedom with headquarters at Tashkent
Answer: A
Show explanation
The Ghadr or Ghadar Party was a revolutionary association of expatriate Indians, mainly Punjabis settled on the western coast of North America. It was founded in 1913 with its headquarters in San Francisco, where it published the Ghadr newspaper in several Indian languages calling for an armed uprising against British rule. The party planned the so-called Ghadr Conspiracy of 1915 in collaboration with Indian soldiers and German agents during the First World War. It was not based in Singapore, Berlin or Tashkent. Hence option (a), a revolutionary association with headquarters at San Francisco, is correct.
- Q87
With reference to India's culture and tradition, what is 'Kalaripayattu'?
- A. It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India
- B. It is an ancient style bronze and brasswork still found in southern part of Coromandel area
- C. It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar
- D. It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Kalaripayattu is a traditional martial art that originated in present-day Kerala in southern India and is regarded as one of the oldest fighting systems in the world. It involves a sophisticated combination of strikes, kicks, grappling, weaponry such as the urumi and sword, and a strong emphasis on physical conditioning and Ayurvedic body therapy, all practised in a kalari, or training hall. It is not a Bhakti cult, a metalwork tradition or a dance-drama. The reference to Malabar in option (c) misclassifies it as dance-drama. Hence option (d), an ancient martial art and living tradition in parts of South India, is correct.
- Q88
Consider the following pairs: 1. Garba : Gujarat 2. Mohiniattam : Odisha 3. Yakshagana : Karnataka. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Show explanation
Garba is a vibrant folk dance performed during Navratri, especially in Gujarat, where dancers move in circles around a central lamp or image of the goddess, so pair 1 is correctly matched. Mohiniattam is a classical solo female dance form of Kerala, characterised by graceful, swaying movements, and is not from Odisha, so pair 2 is wrongly matched; the classical dance of Odisha is Odissi. Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of coastal Karnataka, combining dance, music and elaborate costumes to enact stories from the epics, so pair 3 is correctly matched. Hence 1 and 3 only.
- Q89
With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs: Famous shrine : Location 1. Tabo monastery and temple complex : Spiti Valley 2. Lhotsava Lhakhang temple, Nako : Zanskar Valley 3. Alchi temple complex : Ladakh. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Tabo Monastery and temple complex stands in the Spiti Valley of Himachal Pradesh and was founded in 996 AD; it is one of the oldest continuously functioning Buddhist monasteries in the Indian Himalaya, so pair 1 is correctly matched. The Alchi temple complex on the banks of the Indus in Ladakh, dating from around the eleventh and twelfth centuries, is famous for its distinctive Indo-Tibetan murals and woodwork, so pair 3 is correctly matched. The Lhotsava Lhakhang temple at Nako, however, is in the Hangrang Valley of Kinnaur in Himachal Pradesh, not in Zanskar Valley, so pair 2 is wrong. Hence 1 and 3 only.
- Q90
Consider the following statements: 1. 'Bijak' is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal. 2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
The Bijak is the principal collection of the teachings and verses of Saint Kabir, compiled by his Kabirpanthi followers, not of Saint Dadu Dayal, whose own compositions are preserved in works such as the Dadu Bani; statement 1 is therefore wrong. The Pushti Marg, or path of grace, is a Vaishnava sect founded by Vallabhacharya in the early sixteenth century, centred on devotion to the child form of Krishna at Nathdwara, and not by Madhvacharya, who founded the Dvaita school of Vedanta and a separate Vaishnava tradition; statement 2 is therefore wrong. Hence Neither 1 nor 2.
- Q91
A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their
- A. martial arts in North-East India
- B. musical tradition in North-West India ✓ Correct
- C. classical vocal music in South India
- D. pietra dura tradition in Central India
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Manganiyars are a Muslim community of hereditary professional folk musicians who live in the Thar Desert region of western Rajasthan and adjoining Sindh in Pakistan. They have served, often alongside the Langas, as court and ceremonial musicians for Rajput and Sindhi patrons for centuries, performing at weddings, births and other occasions in a rich tradition of vocal and instrumental music using instruments such as the kamaicha, sarangi and dholak. Their tradition is firmly located in the north-west of India, not in the north-east, the south or the central pietra dura belt. Hence option (b) is correct.
- Q92
What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria's Proclamation (1858)? 1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States 2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown 3. To regulate East India Company's trade with India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
- B. 2 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Show explanation
Queen Victoria's Proclamation of 1858, read out at Allahabad after the suppression of the Revolt of 1857, formally transferred the government of India from the East India Company to the British Crown, so statement 2 is correct. The Proclamation also explicitly disclaimed any further desire to extend the territorial possessions of the Crown by annexing Indian states and pledged respect for the rights, dignity and honour of native princes, so statement 1 is correct. The regulation of East India Company's commercial trade had ceased to be relevant well before 1858, so statement 3 is wrong. Hence 1 and 2 only.
- Q93
Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was
- A. the mosque for the use of Royal Family
- B. Akbar's private prayer chamber
- C. the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions ✓ Correct
- D. the room in which the nobles belonging to different religions gathered to discuss religious affairs
Answer: C
Show explanation
The Ibadat Khana, literally House of Worship, was a hall built by the Mughal emperor Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri in 1575. It was originally meant for Muslim Sufi and theological discussions but was later opened to scholars of all faiths, including Hindu, Jain, Zoroastrian and Christian, who debated religious matters in the emperor's presence. The discussions held there shaped Akbar's eclectic religious outlook and his promulgation of Din-i-Ilahi. It was therefore the hall in which the emperor himself held discussions with scholars of various religions, not a private prayer chamber, family mosque, or noble's lounge. Hence option (c) is correct.
- Q94
In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the 'Seed Replacement Rates' of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/constraints in its wider/greater implementation? 1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place. 2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops. 3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 3 only ✓ Correct
- C. 2 and 3
- D. None
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Seed Replacement Rate measures the share of cropped area that is sown with certified or quality seed instead of farm-saved seed. India has had a National Seeds Policy since 2002, so statement 1 is wrong. Private seed companies, both Indian and multinational, are very active in supplying quality seeds and planting material for vegetables and horticultural crops, so statement 2 is also wrong. The real bottleneck is in low-value, high-volume crops such as wheat, paddy and pulses, where the demand for fresh quality seed each season far outstrips the supply by public and private agencies, so statement 3 is correct. Hence 3 only.
- Q95
With reference to 'Eco-Sensitive Zones', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Eco-Sensitive Zones are notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, around national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, not under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, so statement 1 is wrong. Their purpose is not to ban all human activities except agriculture, but to regulate certain activities; the relevant guidelines categorise activities as prohibited, regulated or permissible, so statement 2 is also wrong. Activities such as mining, polluting industries and major hydroelectric projects are typically prohibited, while many others are merely regulated. Hence Neither 1 nor 2.
- Q96
Consider the following statements: 1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body. 3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3 only ✓ Correct
- C. 2 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Show explanation
The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body established under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, not under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, so statement 1 is wrong. The National Tiger Conservation Authority was given a statutory basis through the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2006, so statement 2 is correct. The National Ganga River Basin Authority, constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act in 2009, was chaired by the Prime Minister of India along with chief ministers of basin states, so statement 3 is correct. Hence 2 and 3 only.
- Q97 · Science & Technology
Consider the following pairs: Vitamin : Deficiency disease 1. Vitamin C : Scurvy 2. Vitamin D : Rickets 3. Vitamin E : Night blindness. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- A. 1 and 2 only ✓ Correct
- B. 3 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. None
Answer: A
Show explanation
Scurvy is caused by deficiency of Vitamin C (ascorbic acid). Symptoms include bleeding gums, weakness, and poor wound healing. Citrus fruits (lemon, orange), amla (Indian gooseberry), and guava are rich sources of Vitamin C.
- Q98
There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why? 1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil. 2. They can enter the food chains. 3. They can trigger the production of free radicals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3 ✓ Correct
Answer: D
Show explanation
Engineered nanoparticles released from manufacturing processes, products and waste streams persist in air, water and soil, where their small size and large surface area allow them to accumulate and contaminate environmental media, so statement 1 is correct. Once in soil and water, they can be taken up by plants, microorganisms and aquatic animals and biomagnify up food chains, so statement 2 is also correct. Many nanoparticles, especially metal oxides, are known to generate reactive oxygen species at cellular level, triggering oxidative stress through the formation of free radicals, so statement 3 is correct. Hence 1, 2 and 3.
- Q99
Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as 'World Economic Outlook'?
- A. The International Monetary Fund ✓ Correct
- B. The United Nations Development Programme
- C. The World Economic Forum
- D. The World Bank
Answer: A
Show explanation
The World Economic Outlook is a flagship publication of the International Monetary Fund. It is brought out twice a year, in April and October, with interim updates in January and July, and presents the IMF's analysis of global economic developments together with growth projections for individual countries and regions. The United Nations Development Programme publishes the Human Development Report, the World Economic Forum publishes the Global Competitiveness Report and other reports, and the World Bank issues the World Development Report and Global Economic Prospects. Hence option (a), the International Monetary Fund, is correct.
- Q100
With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure? 1. Defence expenditure 2. Interest payments 3. Salaries and pensions 4. Subsidies. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓ Correct
- D. None
Answer: C
Show explanation
Non-Plan Expenditure in the pre-2017-18 Union Budget classification covered all expenditure not directly linked to Five-Year Plan outlays. Defence revenue and capital expenditure formed a major item, so statement 1 is included. Interest payments on internal and external debt constituted the largest single component, so statement 2 is included. Salaries, pensions and pay commission outgo for civilian and defence personnel were classic Non-Plan items, so statement 3 is included. Subsidies on food, fertilisers and petroleum products were also booked under Non-Plan, so statement 4 is included. Hence the correct option is 1, 2, 3 and 4.
